1 year ago

15 points!!!

Mathematics

2 answers:

r-ruslan [8.4K]1 year ago

6 0

Answer:

The correct option is 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

If a figure it dilated by scale factor k, then the image and preimage are similar figures and their corresponding sides are proportional.

In triangle I, the base of the triangle is 1 unit and length of the perpendicular is 1 units.

In triangle II, the base of the triangle is 1 unit and length of the perpendicular is 2 units.

$\frac{1}{1}\neq \frac{1}{2}$

The corresponding sides are not proportional. It means both triangles are not similar. So, there is no dilation transforming triangle I into triangle II.

Therefore the correct option is 4.

Ivan1 year ago

6 0

Answer:

There is no dilation transforming triangle I into triangle II.

Step-by-step explanation:

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