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Verizon [17]
2 years ago
15

The first task of the Segment Two Honors Project is to select the Power Pill study participants’ groups and research board offic

ers. Part 1: There are 40 volunteers for the research study on the Power Pill. Each subgroup of the study will contain 10 participants. Determine how many ways these participants can be selected and explain your method. Part 2: There are 15 research doctors participating in the study and the research board needs to be established with the offices of director, assistant director, quality control analyst, and correspondent. (Doctors can only hold one office on the research board.) Determine how many ways this research board can be chosen and explain your process.
Mathematics
2 answers:
Tatiana [17]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Part 1: There are 4.7*10^21 ways to select 40 volunteers in subgroups of 10

Part 2: The research board can be chosen in 32760 ways

Step-by-step explanation:

Part 1:

The number of ways in which we can organized n elements into k groups with size n1, n2,...nk is calculate as:

\frac{ n!}{ n1!*n2!*...*nk! }

So, in this case we can form 4 subgroups with 10 participants each one, replacing the values of:

  • n by 40 participants
  • k by 4 groups
  • n1, n2, n3 and n4 by 10 participants of every subgroups

We get:

\frac{ 40!}{10!*10!*10!*10!} = 4.7*10^{21}

Part 2:

The number of ways in which we can choose k element for a group of n elements and the order in which they are chose matters is calculate with permutation as:

nPk = \frac{ n!}{(n-k)!}

So in this case there are 4 offices in the research board, those are director,  assistant director, quality control analyst and correspondent. Additionally this 4 offices are going to choose from a group of 5 doctors.

Therefore, replacing values of:

  • n by 15 doctors
  • k by 4 offices

We get:

\frac{ 15!}{ (15-4)! } = 32760

In-s [12.5K]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

847,660,528 combinations for part 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi!  So I know this is a little over a year old, but I stumbled on this trying to find the answer for myself, so I figured I'd leave the correct answer here with an explanation, since all the others are bare-bones, at best.  

Basically, you have 40 volunteers and 10 slots to fill.  For the first slot, any of the 40 participants could be chosen.  For the second, however, there has to be <em>someone </em>that got picked for the space prior, so you only have 39 people to choose from and so on, until there are only 31 people left to pick by the time you get to slot #10.  the combination formula is read as : n^{c} r=\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}.  Here, n=40 because there are 40 options, and r=10, because there are 10 slots.  It would be difficult to do all the factorials of 40 (most calculators just refuse, which I found out the hard way), so this is where better understanding of the purpose of the formula becomes handy.  40-10=30, making 30!.  This is actually a representation of how many slots there are.  As I explained earlier, each space must decrease by one in number of possible options, which is why factorials are used in this situation, but it can't go all the way back to zero.  30! can cancel everything in 40! past 31, so there's only 40-31 left, the actual number of slots required.  10! will calculate, and it's the only thing left in the denominator.  This part of the process is necessary because the order doesn't matter in combination equations, so combinations where the only difference is the order cannot be counted. Divide from here, and you should be left with 847,660,528.

For part two, you must use the permutation formula:n^{P} r= \frac{n!}{(n-r)!}.  There are four slots and 15 doctors, and the order in which they are arranged after their selection <em>does </em>matter this time.  15-4=11, so \frac{15!}{11!}.  To divide, remove every repeating number, leaving only 15·14·13·12.  This should solve out to 32,760.

Please let me know if I missed anything or made any mistakes!

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A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0
2 years ago
If pq=9 and qr=28, find PR
Ksenya-84 [330]
PQ = 9
QR = 28

Note, there is a Q in each line

Combine the two lines: PQ + QR = PR

plug in the numbers to corresponding variables

9 + 28 = PR

PR = 37

hope this helps
8 0
2 years ago
A 2.2 GB game is being downloaded onto your laptop. When you have downloaded half a gigabyte, you notice that your computer has
andreev551 [17]

Answer:

0.01m +\frac{1}{2} \geq 2.2

Step-by-step explanation:

Let m be number of minutes it will take to download the whole game.

We are told that computer is downloading at a rate of 0.01 GB per minute and half GB game is already downloaded. So 0.01*m+0.5 will be equal to 2.2 as game size is 2.2 GB.

Let us find the least number of minutes it will take to download the whole game.

0.01m +\frac{1}{2} \geq 2.2

0.01m +0.5\geq 2.2

0.01m \geq 2.2-0.5

0.01m \geq 1.7

m\geq \frac{1.5}{0.01}

Therefore, 0.01m +\frac{1}{2} \geq 2.2 is our desired inequality.



6 0
2 years ago
Workers have packed 1,400 glasses in 7 boxes. If they pack 3 more boxes, how many glasses will they have packed in all?
Alexandra [31]
2000


1box = 1400/7 = 200
200×3=600
1400+600=2000


Step-by-step explanation:
Given :Workers have packed 1,400 glasses in 7 boxes.
To Find :If they pack 3 more boxes, how many glasses will they have packed in all?
Solution:
Workers packed no. of glasses in 7 boxes = 1400
Workers packed no. of glasses in 1 box =
Workers packed no. of glasses in 3 boxes =
                                                                      =
So, initially they packed 1400 glasses
If they pack 3 more boxes so, the pack 600 glasses more
So, The total no. of glasses have packed by workers = 1400+600 = 2000
Hence they have packed 2000 glasses in all.
5 0
2 years ago
In the figure above, two line segments in the x-y plane form a right triangle with the x-axis. What is the area of the triangle
Juli2301 [7.4K]
A = (1/2) * b * h
The base is 10; the x-value going from 0 to 10.
The perpendicular height is 2; the y-value going from 0 to 2
A = (1/2) * 10 * 2
A = 10 units ^2
7 0
2 years ago
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