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DiKsa [7]
2 years ago
15

On January 1, Year 2, Kincaid Company's Accounts Receivable and the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts carried balances of $69,000

and $2,500, respectively. During the year Kincaid reported $180,000 of credit sales. Kincaid wrote off $1,600 of receivables as uncollectible in Year 2. Cash collections of receivables amounted to $210,100. Kincaid estimates that it will be unable to collect one percent (1%) of credit sales. The amount of uncollectible accounts expense recognized in the Year 2 income statement will be:
Business
1 answer:
USPshnik [31]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

bad  debt expense 18,000

Explanation:

bad debt 1% of credit sales:

180,000 x 1% = 18,000

When the adjustment is made base on sales, the current balance in the allowance for doubtful debts is irrelevant.

So no calculation is needed for those.

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Derst Inc. sells a particular textbook for $140. Variable expenses are $25 per book. At the current volume of 6,000 books sold p
mamaluj [8]

Answer:

Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Selling price of a product = $140 per textbook

Variable expenses = $25 per book

Books sold per year = 6,000 books (It is the break even point)

The break even point indicates that there is no profit or loss incurred at the sales.

This means that the sales revenue is equal to the total cost incurred to produced these goods.

Sales per unit - Variable cost per unit - Fixed costs per unit = 0

$140 - $25 - Fixed costs = 0

$115 = Fixed costs per unit

Therefore, the total amount of fixed cost is calculated as follows:

= Fixed cost per unit × Number of books sold

= $115 × 6,000

= $690,000

4 0
2 years ago
On March 14, Apple Corporation purchased 6,000 shares of Pear Inc. for $25 per share plus a $340 brokerage fee. On June 30, when
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

c

Explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
In October, Pine Company reports 18,600 actual direct labor hours, and it incurs $126,540 of manufacturing overhead costs. Stand
VladimirAG [237]

Answer:

The total overhead variance in hours taken is 3,600 hours

The total overhead cost variance is $1,110

Explanation:

The variance is about the different between budget/ standard and actual figures.

Standard hours allowed for the work done is 22,200 hours; and the predetermined overhead rate is $5.75 per direct labor hour. So total cost budgeted for work done is $127,650 = $5.57 x 22,200 hours

The total overhead variance in hours taken  = standard hours of 22,200 - actual direct labor hours of 18,600 = 3,600 hours

The total overhead cost variance  = standard cost - actual cost = $127,650  - $126,540 = $1,110

7 0
2 years ago
If errors occur in the recording process, they___________. a. cannot be corrected until the next accounting period.B. should be
V125BC [204]

Answer:

C- Should be corrected as soon as they are discovered

Explanation:

If error occur in recording process they should be corrected as soon as they are discovered although the errors are usually unintentional mistakes made when recording . Small recording errors might cause major distortions in the overall figures.

Although the suspense account is the main method used to detect errors that cause discrepancies between the debit and credit balances of the trial balance in which

Adjusting entries are posted in the general ledger to correct errors detected in the trial balance.

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Feldspar Inc. is considering the capital structure for a new division. Management has been given the following cost information:
34kurt

Answer:

Option 4

Explanation:

In this question ,we have to compute the WACC which is shown below:

= Weightage of debt × cost of debt × ( 1- tax rate) + (Weightage of  common stock) × (cost of common stock)

For Option 1, it would be

= (0.3 × 10%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.7 × 12.5%)

= 1.8% + 8.75%

= 10.55%

For Option 2, it would be

= (0.4 × 10.5%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.6 × 13%)

= 2.52% + 7.8%

= 10.32%

For Option 3, it would be

= (0.5 × 11%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.5 × 13.5%)

= 3.3% + 6.75%

= 10.05%

For Option 4, it would be

= (0.6 × 11.7%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.4 × 14.2%)

= 4.212% + 5.68%

= 9.89%

For Option 5, it would be

= (0.7 × 13%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.3 × 15.5%)

= 5.46% + 4.65%

= 10.11%

So based on this, the management should accept option 4 as it derives the best debt asset ratio

The weightage of equity would be come

= 1 - weightage of debt

8 0
2 years ago
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