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oee [108]
2 years ago
14

Last year, your company had sales of $2.4 million. The firm's costs of goods sold amounted to 34% of sales. The firm also paid c

ash operating expenses of $1,200,000, and had $80,500 in depreciation expense. The firm had $450,000 in 9% coupon bonds outstanding and paid $25,000 in dividends to its common stockholders. Also, the firm received $40,000 in dividend income from its holdings of other common stocks. Compute the corporation's tax liability.
Business
1 answer:
tangare [24]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

tax expense: 34%        103,020 dollars

Explanation:

Sales                         2,400,000

COGS 34% of sales<u>    (816,000)  </u>

Gross profit                1,584,000‬

other operating        (1,200,000)

depreciation                  (80,500)

interest expense

450,000 x 9%                (40,500)

gain on investment   <u>      40,000  </u>

Income before taxes    303,000

tax expense: 34%        103,020

The dividends paid are not an expense or revenue for the period. is the distribution of prior period gains.

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Meng Co. maintains a $300 petty cash fund. On January 31, the fund is replenished. The accumulated receipts on that date represe
Len [333]

Answer:

A. Dr. Office Supplies, $80; Dr. Merchandise inventory, $160; Dr. Miscellaneous expenses, $20; Dr. Cash over and short, $8; Cr. Petty cash, $268.

Explanation:

$80 for office supplies, $160 for merchandise inventory, and $20 for miscellaneous expenses are all expense accounts which need to be debited for settlement. Cash Shortage account is debited by $8 to record the cash shortage effect. The total of all these account will be credited in cash account.

7 0
2 years ago
Fontaine Inc. recently reported net income of $2 million. It has 500,000 shares of common stock, which currently trades at $40 a
Firlakuza [10]

Answer:

$50

Explanation:

Given,

Current Net income = $2,000,000

No. of common shares today = 500,000

Current market price per share = $40

Anticipated Net income in 1 year = $ 3,250,000

Anticipated No. of common shares in 1 year = 500,000 +150000 =650,000

From this data, then

The current Earnings Per Share(EPS) = \frac{2,000,000}{500,000} = 4

Current Price/Earning ratio = \frac{ Price per share}{EPS} = \frac{40}{4} = 10

Anticipated EPS in 1 year=\frac{Anticipated Net income in 1 year }{Anticipated No. of common shares in 1 year } = \frac{3,250,000}{650,000} = $5

If the company's P/E ratio remain as that of the current at 10, then

The anticipated price of stock in 1 year = Anticipated EPS * P/E ratio in 1 year

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4 0
2 years ago
The environmental protection agency of a county would like to preserve a piece of land as a wilderness area. The current owner h
charle [14.2K]

Answer: The answer is given below

Explanation:

Here , we are going to apply the present value of annuty formula.

a. Social Opportunity cost = $1.1 Million

The Yearly cash flows = $110,000

Time (n) = 20 years

The Discount rate (R) = 4%

Net benefits= Present value of cash inflows - the intial socail opportnity cost

Net benefits= Yearly cash flow × (1 - 1/(1+R)^n) / R - 1100000

Net benefits = 110000 × (1 - 1/1.04^20)/0.04 - (1100000)

= $394936

b. We will use the formula for present value of an annuity with the growth rate in benefits as 2 percent.

Firstly, dg= (0.04 - 0.02)/ (1+0.02)

= 0.01961

PV(benefits) = [($110,000)÷ (1+0.02)][1-(1+dg)-20]/dg]

= $1,770,045

NPV = $1,770,045 - $1,100,000= $670,045

7 0
2 years ago
Smithson Company uses a job-order costing system and has two manufacturing departments— Molding and Fabrication. The company pro
vazorg [7]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

1)

<u>a) First, we need to calculate the total estimated overhead:</u>

Total overhead= 1,100,000 + (5*50,000)= 1,350,000

<u>Now, we can determine the overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 1,350,000/50,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $27 per machine hour

<u>b) </u>

Job D-75:

Total cost= direct material + direct labor + allocated overhead

Total cost= 700,000 + 360,000 + 27*20,000

Total cost= $1,600,000

Job C-200:

Total cost= 550,000 + 400,000 + 27*30,000

Total cost= $1,760,000

c) Selling price= 150% of manufacturing costs

Job D-75= 1,600,000*1.5= $2,400,000

Job C-200= 1,760,000*1.5= $2,640,000

d) COGS= beginning finished inventory + cost of goods manufactured - ending finished inventory

COGS=  0 + (1,600,000 + 1,760,000) - 0

COGS= $3,360,000

<u>2) </u>

<u>a) </u>

Molding= (800,000/20,000) + 5= $45 per machine hour

Assembly= (300,000/30,000) + 5= $15 per machine hour

<u>b) </u>

Job D-75:

Total cost= 700,000 + 360,000 + 45*20,000

Total cost= $$1,960,000

Job C-200:

Total cost= 550,000 + 400,000 + 15*30,000

Total cost= $1,400,000

<u>c) </u>

Job D-75= 1,960,000*1.5= $2,940,000

Job C-200= 1,400,000*1.5= $2,100,000

<u>d)</u> COGS= 0 + (1,960,000 + 1,400,000) + 0

COGS= $3,360,000

4 0
2 years ago
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