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attashe74 [19]
2 years ago
12

5. Jeremy bought a $60 pair of sneakers on sale for 15% off. Then, he used a coupon that gave him an additional 10% off. Can Jer

emy find the cost of the sneakers by adding the percents? Justify your answer: by finding 25% off of $60, and by finding 15% off of $60, and then subtracting 10% from that c
Mathematics
1 answer:
sweet-ann [11.9K]2 years ago
7 0

Answer: $45.90

No Jeremy can not find the cost of the sneakers by adding the percents, you have to the math one sale discount at a time.

Step-by-step explanation:

You have to multiply $60 by 15%, getting $9. Subtract 9 from 60 and get the first discount price: $51. Then you will multiply 51 by `10% and get 5.1, subtract 5.1 from 51 and get your final sale price $45.90. If you added the percents together you would get an incorrect value of $45.

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Line segments XY and ZY are tangent to circle O. Circle O is shown. Triangle X Y Z has points X and Z on the circle. Lines X Y a
pickupchik [31]

Answer:

The correct option is;

An isosceles triangle

Step-by-step explanation:

The parameters given are;

Line segments XY and ZY are tangents to circle O.

ΔXYZ has points X and Z on the circle.

XY and ZY are tangents that intersect at point Y outside the circle'

Therefore, given the circle has center O, then;

OY ≅ OZ = Radius of circle with center O

∠OXY ≅ ∠OZY = 90°  (The radius line from the circle center to the tangent point is perpendicular)

OY ≅ OY (Reflexive property)

ΔOYX and ΔOYZ are right triangles (Triangle with one angle = 90°

ΔOYX ≅ ΔOYZ (Hypotenuse Leg, HL, rule of congruency)

Therefore;

XY = ZY (Corresponding Parts of Congruent Triangles are Congruent CPCTC)

Triangle XYZ is an isosceles triangle (Triangle with two equal sides).

4 0
2 years ago
Blackjack, or twenty-one as it is frequently called, is a popular gambling game played in Las Vegas casinos. A player is dealt t
drek231 [11]

Answer:

a) The porbability that both cards dealt are 10-point cards or aces is 0.1433

b) The probability that 2 aces are dealt is 0.0045

c) The probability that the two cards dealt are 10-point cards is 0.0905

d) The probability that a player is dealt a blackjack is 0.0483

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Since there are 52 cards, there are {52 \choose 2} = 1326 ways to deal them; also, there are 16+4 = 20 cards that are aces or 10-point cards, thus, there are {20 \choose 2} = 190 ways of dealing 2 cards that are 10-point cards or Aces. Since the probability for each individual hand is the same, then, the porbability that both cards dealt are 10-point cards or aces is 190/1326 = 0.1433.

b) There are {4 \choose 2} = 6 ways to deal 2 aces. As a result, the probability that 2 aces are dealt is 6/1326 = 0.0045.

c) There are {16 \choose 2} = 120 ways to deal two 10-point cards. Therefore, the probability that the two cards dealt are 10-point cards is 120/1326 = 0.0905.

d) There are 3 distinct ways of obtaining a pair of 10-point cards/Aces. Either you obtain two Aces, or you obtain two 10-point cards or you obtain 1 from each (which results in a balck jack). Since each possibility is mutually exclusive from the others, then

P(obtain 2 cards that are Aces or 10-point cards) = P( two 10-point cards) + P(two Aces) + P(Blackjack)

The probability to obtain 2 cards that are Aces or 10-point cards were computed in item (a) and it was 0.1433, and the other 2 probabilities besides blackjack were oobtained earlier in items (b) and (c). As a consequence

0.1433 = 0.0905 + 0.0045 + P(Blackjack)

So we conclude that

P(Blackjack) = 0.1433-0.0905-0.0045 = 0.0483

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the mode of the following numbers?<br> 67, 76, 67, 76, 67, 23, 32, 23, 32<br> 0
AleksAgata [21]

Answer:

67

Step-by-step explanation:

67, 76, 67, 76, 67, 23, 32, 23, 32 ,0

Put the numbers in order from smallest to largest

0,23,  23, 32,32, 67, 67, 67, 76, 76,

The mode is the number that appears most often

67 appears 3 times so it is the mode

5 0
2 years ago
What is 200 percent of (0.020(5/4) + 3 ((1/5) - (1/4)))
Inessa [10]

Answer:

0.1/4-3/20=1/40-6/40=-1/8 200% of this is -1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
Using the power series methods solve the 1st order Lane-Emden Equation:
nikklg [1K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

xy = 2y + xy = 0

Hence, 2y + xy = 0 ---------(1)

Differentiating equation (1) n times by Leibnitz theorem, gives:

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Let x = 0: 2y(n) + ny(n - 1) = 0

2y(n) = -ny(n - 1)

∴ y(n) = -ny(n - 1)/2 for n ≥ 1

For n = 1: y = 0

For n = 2: y(1) = -y

For n = 3: -3y(2)/2

For n = 4: -2y(3)

5 0
2 years ago
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