Answer:
SF7.37
Explanation:
PV of cash flow is calculated using the formula
1-(1+r)^-n/r=1-(1-0.15)^5/0.15=1-(0.75)^5/0.15=1-0.237/0.15=5.085
So pv=5.085×4.4=SF
20.3385million
Using interest parity
1+ic/1+ib =Fo/So
Counter country is US while home country is in
swiss
1+0.05/1.04=fo/1.09
Fo=1.09×1.05/1.04=1.1
So expected PV=20.3385×1.1=SF22.37235million
Profit=23.37235-15=SF7.37
Answer: c.) Yes, the process is in control.
Explanation:
For the process to be in control, the number of defects have to be between the Upper Control Limit and the Lower Control limits of the c-chart which can be used to measure defects of irregularities per unit.;
UCL = C-bar + z*√(c-bar)
LCL = C-bar - z*√(c-bar)
C - Bar = 
C - Bar = 
C - Bar = 4.375
z = 3 when using the 3 sigma control
UCL = C-bar + z*√(c-bar)
UCL = 4.375 + 3 * √(4.375)
UCL = 10.65
LCL = C-bar - z*√(c-bar)
LCL = 4.375 - 3 * √(4.375)
LCL = -1.9
LCL = 0 (Lower limit minimum should be 0 at least)
Defects are within the control limits. The process is in control.
Answer:
The home must sell for $616,500 to be able to settle all costs
Explanation:
The net to the formula can be used to ascertain the price of the property , the formula is given below:
Net amount=Sales price*(100%-commission rate)
The net to the seller in this case is the amount that seller would receive and be able to settle mortgage and closing costs and still be left with $75000
Net amount =$75000+$450000+$36000
=$561000
commission rate is 9%
$561000=sales price*(100-9%)
$561000=sales price*91%
sales price =$561000/91%
=616483.52
But to the nearest $100 is $616500
Answer:
journal entry are given below
Explanation:
given data
amount of interest = $150
solution
we know that as June 30 the interest earn company bank reconciliation is
$150
Therefore, it should be a cash debit and interest income should be deposited in the account as
journal entry are as June 30
Cash A/c $150 Dr.
To Interest revenue $150
record the interest revenue earned
Answer:
Their underlying asset beta is closest to is 1.08
Explanation:
According to the given data we have the following:
Debt is given as $78 billion
Equity is given as $142 billion
equity beta given as 1.68
Therefore, in order to calculate the underlying asset beta we would have to use the formula of the the equity beta for a levered firm as follows:
betaE =beta A [1 + (Debt / Equity)]
1.68 = \beta A [1 + ($78 B/ $142 B)]
1.68 = \beta A [1 + 0.5493]
betaA = 1.68 / 1.5493
betaA = 1.08
Their underlying asset beta is closest to is 1.08
