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lisabon 2012 [21]
2 years ago
8

After documenting the client's prescribed internal control, the auditors will often perform a walk-through of each transaction c

ycle.
An objective of a walk-through is to:A. Verify that the controls have been implemented (placed in operation).B. Replace tests of controls.C. Evaluate the major strengths and weaknesses in the client's internal control.D. Identify weaknesses to be communicated to management in the management letter.
Business
1 answer:
tankabanditka [31]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

A. Verify that the controls have been implemented (placed in operation).

Explanation:

The companies should have a fair policy of internal controls. It should basically have a policy which regulates and monitors all the transactions of each individual. It shall certainly be developed so that the work of one individual is monitored by the other automatically.

When the documentation is done, of such policies and controls by the auditor, he shall satisfy himself by counter checking that the procedures and practices laid are implemented properly.

So that there are no loop holes, and the management shall be held responsible for any procedure documented and not followed practically.

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An American-style call option with six months to maturity has a strike price of $35. The underlying stock now sells for $43. The
Travka [436]

Answer:

a) $8

b) $4

c) Decrease

Explanation:

Background.

A call option as you probably know, is an agreement to buy an asset on or before a particular day at a price already determined in the agreement.

a) the Intrinsic value of the option is the market price minus the strike price.

Intrinsic Value = Market Price - Strike price

= $43 - $35

= $8 per share.

It is worthy of note that for an option, of the intrinsic value dips into negative figures it is just said to be 0.

b) To calculate the time value, we subtract the intrinsic value from the call premium

= Call Premium - Intrinsic value

= $12 - $8

= $4

c) The call option has 6 months to maturity and the dividends are to come in 3 months. Share prices usually drop after a dividend has been paid so because the call option matures in 6 months, the price of the call option will DECREASE owing to the Expected drop in stock price.

8 0
1 year ago
Masterson, Inc., has 4.1 million shares of common stock outstanding. The current share price is $84, and the book value per shar
Kitty [74]

Answer:

The answer is "8.37%".

Explanation:

\text{MV of equity} = \text{equity price}  \times \text{number of outstanding shares}

                     =84 \times 4100000\\\\=344400000

\text{MV of Bond1}=\text{Par value} \times \text{bonds outstanding} \times \text{age of percentage}

                      =1000 \times 70000 \times 0.98 \\\\=68600000

\text{MV of Bond2}=\text{Par value} \times \text{bonds outstanding} \times \text{age of percentage}

                      =1000 \times 50000 \times 1.08 \\\\=54000000

\text{MV of firm} = \text{MV of Equity} + \text{MV of Bond1}+ \text{MV of Bond 2}

                  =344400000+68600000+54000000\\\\=467000000

\text{Weight of equity W(E)} = \frac{\text{MV of Equity}}{\text{MV of firm}}

                                     = \frac{344400000}{467000000}\\\\=0.7375

\text{Weight of debt W(D)}= \frac{\text{MV of Bond}}{\text{MV of firm}}

                                  = \frac{122600000}{467000000}\\\\=0.2625

Equity charges

By DDM.  

\text{Price = new dividend} \times  \frac{(1 + \text{rate of growth})}{( \text{Equity expense-rate of growth)}}

84 = 3.95  \times  \frac{(1+0.05)}{(\text{Cost of equity}- 0.05)}\\\\84 = 3.95  \times  \frac{(1.05)}{(\text{Cost of equity} - 0.05)}\\\\84 = \frac{4.1475}{ (\text{Cost of equity} - 0.05)}\\\\\text{Cost of equity} -0.05 = \frac{4.1475}{84}\\\\\text{Cost of equity} -0.05 = 0.049375\\\\\text{Cost of equity}  = 0.049375 + 0.05\\\\\text{Cost of equity}  = 0.099375 \\\\\text{Cost of equity} \%  = 9.9375 \% \ \ \ or  \ \ \ 9.94 \%  \\\\

Debt expenses  

Bond1

K = N \times 2 \\\\

Bond \ Price = \sum  [ \frac{\text{(Semi Annual Coupon)}}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{2})^k}]     +   \frac{Par\  value}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{2})^{N \times 2}}

k=1\\\\K =20 \times 2\\\\980 = \sum  [ \frac {(5.1 \times \frac{1000}{200})}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{200})^k}] +   \frac{1000}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{200})}^{20 \times 2}\\\\k=1\\\\\ YTM1 = 5.2628923903\\\\Bond2\\

K = N \times 2

Bond \ Price = \sum  [ \frac{\text{(Semi Annual Coupon)}}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{2})^k}]     +   \frac{Par\  value}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{2})^{N \times 2}}

k=1\\\\K =12 \times 2\\\\

1080 =\sum [\frac{(5.6 \times \frac{1000}{200})}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{200})^k}] +\frac{1000}{(1 +\frac{YTM}{200})^{12 \times 2}} \\\\k=1\\\\YTM2 = 4.72\\\\

\text{Company debt costs} = YTM1 times \frac{(MV \ bond1)}{(MV \ bond1+MV \ bond2)}+YTM2 \times \frac{(MV \ bond2)}{(MV \ bond2)}\\\\

The cost of the debt for the company:

= 5.2628923903 \times \frac{(68600000)}{(68600000+54000000)}+4.72 \times \frac{(68600000)}{(68600000+54000000)}\\\\

Business debt cost=5.02 \% \\\\

after taxation cost of debt:  

= \text{cost of debt} \times (1- tax \ rate)\\\\= 5.02 \times (1-0.21)\\\\= 3.9658\\\\

WACC= \text{after debt charges} \times W(D)+equity cost  \times W(E) \\\\

            =3.97 \times 0.2625+9.94 \times 0.7375 \\\\ =8.37 \% \\\\

7 0
2 years ago
You’ve decided the industry is mature. That means it has reached a point of market saturation. As a new player, you’ll need to t
OlgaM077 [116]

Answer:

intensity of rivalry

Explanation:

You answer this question based on Porter's Five forces model. This model is used to analyze how stiff competition is in a given industry. It includes, threat of new entrants, bargaining power of suppliers, bargaining power of buyers, intensity of rivalry and threat of substitute goods. In this case, the leaders must address the intensity of rivalry because the market is already saturated with those three big companies. Therefore,  your company must evaluate level of homogeneity of products that already exists, consumers' switching costs and brand loyalty to come up with a competitive strategy.

6 0
1 year ago
You are currently getting 26 sales opportunities per day and closing 64% of them. Employee: Wow, I am closing __________ sales o
VikaD [51]

Answer:

The correct word for the blank space is: 16.

Explanation:

Percentages represent part of a number. The result could be higher or lower than the original number. Percentages are calculated by multiplying the original number for the amount of the percentage desired and dividing that preliminary result by one hundred (100).

Thus, in the example:

Sales closed per day = (Sale opportunities) x (percentage of sales closed)  

Sales closed per day = 26 x 64%

Sales closed per day = 26 x (64/100)

Sales closed per day = 16,64

As sales cannot be fractioned, the sales closed per day are 16.

7 0
1 year ago
39. You expect to receive $5,000 in 25 years. How much is it worth today if the discount rate is 5.5%?
ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

PV= $1,311.17

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Future Value (FV)= $5,000

Number of periods (n)= 25 years

Interest rate (i)= 5.5% compounded annually

T<u>o calculate the present value (PV), we need to use the following formula:</u>

<u></u>

PV= FV / (1+i)^n

PV= 5,000 / 1.055^25

PV= $1,311.17

6 0
1 year ago
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