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Vlada [557]
2 years ago
7

A set of 20 cards consists of 12 red cards and 8 black cards. The cards are shuffled thoroughly and you choose one at random, ob

serve its color, and replace it in the set. The cards are thoroughly reshuffled, and you again choose a card at random, observe its color, and replace it in the set. This is done a total of six times. Let X be the number of red cards observed in these six trials. The variance of X isA. 6.B. 3.60.C. 2.4.D. 1.44.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Vlad1618 [11]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

the answer D=1.44

Step-by-step explanation:

if the X= number of red cards observed in 6 trials , since each card observation is independent from the others and the sampling process is done with replacement ( the card is observed, then returned and reshuffled) , X follows an binomial distribution.

X(x)= n!/((n-x)!*x!) *p^x *(1-p)^(n-x)

where n = number of trials = 6 , x= number of red cards observed , p= probability of obtaining a red card in one try

the probability of obtaining the card in one try is

p = number of red cards / total number of cards = 12/ (12+8) = 0.6

since we know that X has a binomial distribution, the variance of this kind of distribution is

variance = σ² = n * p * (1-p)

therefore the variance of X is

variance = σ² = n * p * (1-p) = 6 * 0.6 * (1-0.6) = 1.44

 

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A jar of 150 jelly beans contains 22 red jelly beans, 38 yellow, 20 green, 28 purple, 26 blue, and the rest are orange.Let B = t
pentagon [3]

Answer:

P(R\ and\ B) = 0.0256

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Red = 22

Yellow = 38

Green = 20

Purple = 28

Blue = 26

Orange = 16

Required

Determine the probability of red then blue jelly? i.e. P(R and B)

From the question, we understand that the red jelly bean was not replaced. This means that the number of jelly beans reduced by 1 after the picking of the red jelly bean

So, we have:

P(R\ and\ B) = P(R)\ and\ P(B)

This is then solved further as:

P(R\ and\ B) = P(R)\ *\ P(B)

P(R\ and\ B) = \frac{n(R)}{Total}\ *\frac{n(B)}{Total - 1}

The probability has a denominator of Total - 1 because the number of jelly beans reduced by 1 after the picking of the red jelly bean

The equation becomes:

P(R\ and\ B) = \frac{22}{150}\ *\frac{26}{150- 1}

P(R\ and\ B) = \frac{22}{150}\ *\frac{26}{149}

P(R\ and\ B) = \frac{22*26}{150*149}

P(R\ and\ B) = \frac{572}{22350}

P(R\ and\ B) = 0.02559284116

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3 0
2 years ago
The graph of f(x) = x6 – 2x4 – 5x2 + 6 is shown below.
DochEvi [55]

Answer:

There are two rational roots for f(x)

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given a function

f(x) = x^6-2x^4-5x^2+6

To find the number of rational roots for f(x).

Let us use remainder theorem that when

f(a) =0, (x-a) is a factor of f(x) or x=a is one solution.

Substitute 1 for x

f(1) = 1-2-5+6=0

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We find that f(x) (x^2-3) factor gives two irrational solutions as

±√3.

Hence number of rational roots are 2.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Denzel earned money after school delivering newspapers and doing yardwork. He put - of this month's earnings into his savings. H
Inessa05 [86]
<h3><u>Question:</u></h3>

Denzel earned money after school. He put 1/2 of this month's earnings into savings. He took the rest to spend at the amusement park. He spent 1/5 of this amount on popcorn and 3/4 of it on rides. What fraction of his earnings did he take to the park but not spend on rides or popcorn.

<h3><u>Answer:</u></h3>

\frac{1}{40} fraction of money not spend in amusement park

<h3><u>Solution:</u></h3>

Let "x" be the total earnings

He put 1/2 of this month's earnings into savings

\text{ savings} = \frac{1}{2} \text{ of } x

\text{ savings} = \frac{1}{2}x = \frac{x}{2}

He took the rest to spend at the amusement park

\text{ Remaining amount }= x - \frac{x}{2}\\\\\text{ Remaining amount } = \frac{2x - x}{2} = \frac{x}{2}

He spent 1/5 of this amount on popcorn and 3/4 of it on rides

\text{ Amount spend on popcorn } = \frac{1}{5} \times \frac{x}{2} = \frac{x}{10}

\text{ amount spend on rides } = \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{x}{2} = \frac{3x}{8}

<em><u>So the fraction of money not spend in amusement park is:</u></em>

⇒ Remaining amount - (Amount spend on popcorn + amount spend on rides)

\rightarrow \frac{x}{2} - (\frac{x}{10} + \frac{3x}{8})\\\\\rightarrow \frac{x}{2} - \frac{38x}{80}\\\\\rightarrow \frac{2x}{80} = \frac{x}{40}

Thus \frac{1}{40} fraction of money not spend in amusement park

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