160 in 1¢ steps means 16,000 bids
so you invest $1 with a 1/16000 probability<span> of a $2000 return
the expected value (in dollars) is ___ -1 + [(1/16000) * 2000)]
this is why auction websites exist
THIS MEANS
</span>it is a 1/16,000 chance of earning<span> 1,999 while there is a 15,999 chance of losing a dollar so find 1/16000 which is 0.0000625 so do 1-0.0000625=.9999375 so .9999375*-1=-.9999375+(1999*.0000625=.1249375+-.9999375=0.875 </span>
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
1. The line contains the points (34,12) and (32,48). Then, you need to use the slope formula, which is:

2. When you substitute values into the formula, you obtain:


I think you meant it to be not repeating 3 times so
You do 192/3 is 60*3= 180 leaving you with 12 which is 4*3. So 64 is A
Then it’s 300/5 which is 60
455/7. So first see, if I multiply 7 by 60 is it over or under. If it’s over then B is the least and if it is less then C is the least. So 7 *60 is 420
C Being greater, b costs least per night
I added a screenshot with the complete question along with its diagram
<u><em>Answer:</em></u>∠1 = 163°
<u><em>Explanation:</em></u><u>1- getting angle 2:</u>We know that ∠2 and the 17° form a straight angle. This means that their sum is 180°.
Therefore:
180 = 17 + ∠2
∠2 = 180 - 17
∠2 = 163°
<u>2- getting angle 1:</u>We are given that lines a and b are parallel.
This means that ∠1 and ∠2 are alternating angles which means that they are equal in measurement.
We have calculated that ∠2 = 163°
This means that:
∠1 = 163°
Hope this helps :)