Answer:
b. value-based pricing
Explanation:
Value based pricing is a pricing strategy to set price of products based on value perceived by the purchaser. To have increased profit margin, business deduces the number of benefit the product provides to consumer. Then it establishes price which takes consideration of manufacturing cost, competitive price and consumer's willingness to pay price for the goods.
In the question mentioned IKEA not only provide functional benefit for the product but also quality, design, and services at low prices hence it is an instance of value based pricing.
Answer:
$4,372.71
Explanation:
Here for reaching the difference in PV between the first and the second offer first we need to follow some steps which is shown below:-
Step 1
Total payment due = Per tire × Bought tires
= $80 × 600
= $48,000
Step 2
Present value factor of 8.4% for 1 year = 1 ÷ (1 + Rate of interest)^Number of years
= 1 ÷ (1 + 8.4%)^1
= 1 ÷ (1 + 0.084)^1
= 1 ÷ 1.084
= 0.92251
Step 3
First offer
Present value = Total payment due × Present value factor of 8.4% for 1 year
= $48,000 × 0.92251
= $44,280.48
Step 4
Second offer
One year payment = Bought tires × Per tire
= 600 × $45
= $27,000
Step 5
Present value = One year payment × Present value factor of 8.4% for 1 year
= 27,000 × 0.92251
= $24,907.77
Step 6
Total present value = Present value of second offer + Tires cost
= $24,907.77 + $15,000
= $39,907.77
Here we can see that first offer is higher than second offer
So,
The difference between the first and the second offer = First offer - Second offer
= $44,280.48 - $39,907.77
= $4,372.71
Answer: $8500
Explanation:
The total administrative expense allocated to the Meats department will be calculated thus:
= (Total administrative expense/Total Sales in square Feet) × Meat Department sales in Square Feet
= (17000/3200) × 1600
= $8500
The total administrative expense allocated to the Meats department is $8500.
Answer:
- $104.50
- $67.50
- $65.50
- $77.50
- $56.50
Explanation:
the income tax to withhold from the biweekly wages are :
- <u> </u><u>Karen Overton (single, 0 allowances), $900 wages</u>
=$34.90 + ($900 - 436) x 15%
= $104.50
- <u> Nancy Haller (married, 4 allowances), $1,000 wages </u>
=($1000 - 325 ) x 10%
= $67.50
- <u>Alan Glasgow (married, 1 allowance), $980 wages </u>
=($980 - 325 ) x 10%
= $65.50
- <u>Joseph Kerr (single, 4 allowances), $720 wages </u>
= $34.90 + ($720 - $436) x 15%
= $77.50
- <u> </u><u>Ginni Lorenz (single, 1 allowance), $580 wages</u>
= $34.90 + ($580 - $436) x 15%
= $56.50
Answer:
1
Explanation:
A perfect competition is characterized by many buyers and sellers of homogenous goods and services. Market prices are set by the forces of demand and supply. There are no barriers to entry or exit of firms into the industry.
In the long run, firms earn zero economic profit. If in the short run firms are earning economic profit, in the long run firms would enter into the industry. This would drive economic profit to zero.
Also, if in the short run, firms are earning economic loss, in the long run, firms would exit the industry until economic profit falls to zero.
In a perfect monopoly, there is only one firm operating in the industry
In a monopolistic competition, differentiated products are sold
In an oligopoly, there are few large firms