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2 years ago

7.3 x 9.6 = how to show your work

2 answers:

7 0

Multiply both numbers by 10 to make them easier to work with

7.3 x 10 = 73
9.6 x 10 = 96
------
96 x 73=
96x 10= 960
960 x 7= 6720
96x 3 =288
------
Add the following.
6720 ( 70 lots of 96 ) + 288 ( 3 lots of 96 )
to get = 7008
------
because we multiplied them in the beginning we need to divide them back.
7008 ÷ 100 = 70.08.

ss7ja [257]2 years ago

4 0

The correct answer is 70.08 all you have to do is multiply them together.

You might be interested in

A bicycle wheel is 63 centimeters from top to bottom. When the wheel goes all the way around one time,the bicycle travels 198 ce

OlgaM077 [116]

Answer:

π = 198/63

Divide the distance traveled by the wheel to guess the value or estimate the value of π.

Step-by-step explanation:

Height of the wheel: Diameter of the circle

Perimeter of the circle = π*diameter of the circle

Divide the diameter of the circle by the perimeter of the circle.

π = 198/63

Hope this helps.

8 0

1 year ago

For a standardized psychology examination intended for psychology majors, the historical data show that scores have a mean of 52

Ludmilka [50]

Answer:

the probability that a sample of the 35 exams will have a mean score of 518 or more is 0.934 or 93.4%.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is s z-test because we have been given a sample that is large (greater than 30) and also a standard deviation. The z-test compares sample results and normal distributions. Therefore, the z-statistic is:

(520 - 518) / (180/√35)

= 0.0657

Therefore, the probability is:

P(X ≥ 0.0657) = 1 - P(X < 0.0657)

where

X is the value to be standardised

Thus,

P(X ≥ 0.0657) = 1 - (520 - 518) / (180/√35)

= 1 - 0.0657

= 0.934

Therefore, the probability that a sample of the 35 exams will have a mean score of 518 or more is 0.934 or 93.4%.

3 0

1 year ago

Using the extended Euclidean algorithm, find the multiplicative inverse of a. 135 mod 61 b. 7465 mod 2464 c. 42828 mod 6407

rodikova [14]

Answer:

(a)1≡47 mod 61

(b)1≡2329 mod 2464

(c)Does not exist

Step-by-step explanation:

The operation a(mod b) has an inverse if the the two integers (a,b)

are co-prime. i.e. their g.c.d is 1.

(a)Given 135 mod 61

We first reduce it to its lowest form.

135 mod 61=13 mod 61

61=13(4)+9 ==> 9=61-13(4)

13=9(1)+4 ==> 4=13-9(1)

9=4(2)+1 ==> 1=9-4(2)

4=1(4)

Next we rewrite 1 as a linear combination of 13 and 61.

1=9-4(2)

=9-(13-9(1))2

=9(3)-13(2)

=(61-13(4))(3)-13(2)

=61(3)-13(12)-13(2)

1=61(3)-13(14)

1=61(3)+13(-14)

1≡-14 mod 61≡(-14+61)mod 61

1≡47 mod 61

(b)7465 mod 2464

Reducing it to its lowest form

7465 mod 2464=73 mod 2464

2464=73(33)+55 ==>55=2464-73(33)

73= 55(1)+18 ==> 18=73-55(1)

55=18(3)+1 ==>1=55-18(3)

18=1(18)

Rewriting 1 as a linear combination of 73 and 2464.

1=55-18(3)

=2464-73(33)-(73-55(1))(3)

=2464-73(33)-73(3)+55(3)

=2464-73(36)+55(3)

=2464-73(36)+(2464-73(33))(3)

=2464-73(36)+2464(3)-73(99)

=2464(4)-73(135)

1=2464(4)+73(-135)

Therefore:

1≡-135 mod 2464

1≡(-135+2464)mod 2464

1≡2329 mod 2464

The two numbers are not co-prime. In fact their g.c.d is 43.

Therefore their inverse does not exist.

4 0

1 year ago

Read 2 more answers

I need help with 3, 5, 8, and 10

777dan777 [17]

Hope this can help you

6 0

1 year ago

A contractor has found that her cost for a certain construction job is subject to random variation. She believes its actual valu

bearhunter [10]

Answer:

Attached is the profit distribution plotted on the chart and also the detailed solution using excel

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this problem we have to

create a column for number of counts ( 1,2,3........1000) bids
create a column for the cost to be incurred which is mostly dependent on the random number generated. the formula for that using excel is; 9000+ rand()*(11000-9000) for uniform distribution between the numbers
Four(4) more columns are generated for bids of competitors by using the formula: 10000+rand()*(3*10000-10000) this because the bids that will be submitted by others bidders will vary uniformly between her mean cost and 3 times her mean cost
Condition is checked to see if the lowest bid is. =IF(MIN(the 4 bids)>14000,1,0)
Next the same process is carried out for 13000 and 15000
The probability of winning is calculated in excel using this formula =Countif(value of step 4 for all the rows,1)/1000

8 0

2 years ago