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Crazy boy [7]
2 years ago
13

A bank records deposits as positive numbers and withdrawals as negative numbers. Mike withdrew \$60$60dollar sign, 60 from his b

ank account 333 times. What is the change in Mike's account balance after all 333 withdrawals?
Mathematics
1 answer:
galina1969 [7]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

8,000

Step-by-step explanation:

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Game 1 gives you 200 points every time you score. Game 2 doubles your points every time you score (2, 4, 8, and so on). In which
nignag [31]
Its depends on how many times you score during the game 

in second game the number of points increases  as a geometric sequence
with common ratio 2

so for example if you score ten times in first game you get 2000 points


if you score 10 times in Game 2 you score   2 * (2^10) - 1  =  2046 points

so playing 10 or more games  is best with Game 2.  Any less plays favours gane 1.

6 0
2 years ago
Show that the given set of functions is orthogonal with respect to the given weight on the prescribed interval. Find the norm of
AnnyKZ [126]

Answer/Explanation

The complete question is:

Show that the set function {1, cos x, cos 2x, . . .} is orthogonal with respect to given weight on the prescribed interval [- π, π]

Step-by-step explanation:

If we make the identification For ∅° (x) = 1 and  ∅n(x) = cos nx, we must show that ∫ lim(π) lim(-π) .∅°(x)dx = 0 , n ≠0, and ∫ lim(π) lim(-π) .∅°(x)dx = 0, m≠n.

Therefore, in the first case, we have

(∅(x), ∅(n)) ∫ lim(π) lim(-π) .∅°(x)dx = ∫ lim(π) lim(-π) cosn(x)dx

This will therefore be equal to :

1/n sin nx lim(π) lim(-π) = 1/n  [sin nπ - sin(-nπ)] = 0 , n ≠0 (In the first case)

and in the second case, we have,,

(∅(m) , ∅(n)) = ∫ lim(π) lim(-π) .∅°(x)dx

This will therefore be equal to:

∫ lim(π) lim(-π) cos mx cos nx dx

Therefore, 1/2 ∫ lim(π) lim(-π)( cos (m+n)x + cos( m-n)x dx (Where this equation represents the trigonometric function)

1/2 [ sin (m+n)x / m+n) ]+ [ sin (m-n)x / m-n) ]  lim(π) lim(-π) = 0, m ≠ n

Now, to go ahead to find the norms in the given set intervals, we have,

for  ∅°(x) = 1 we have:

//∅°(x)//² = ∫lim(π) lim(-π) dx = 2π

So therefore, //∅°(x)//² = √2π

For ∅°∨n(x)  = cos nx  , n > 0.

It then follows that,

//∅°(x)//² = ∫lim(π) lim(-π) cos²nxdx = 1/2 ∫lim(π) lim(-π) [1 + cos2nx]dx = π

Thus, for n > 0 , //∅°(x)// = √π

It is therefore ggod to note that,

Any orthogonal set of non zero functions {∅∨n(x)}, n = 0, 1, 2, . . . can be  normalized—that is, made into an orthonormal set by dividing each function by  its norm. It follows from the above equations that has been set.

Therefore,

{ 1/√2π , cosx/√π , cos2x/√π...} is orthonormal on the interval {-π, π}.

6 0
2 years ago
Which best explains whether a triangle with side lengths 5 cm, 13 cm, and 12 cm, is a right triangle?
Llana [10]
The Pythagorean Proposition can help you explain this:
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7 0
2 years ago
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You have a ruler of length 1 and you choose a place to break it using a uniform probability distribution. Let random variable X
salantis [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

idek

6 0
2 years ago
If m/n=0.75 then what is 3m 2n
torisob [31]

m/n = 0.75

m = 0.75n

3(0.75n)/2n = 2.25n/2n = 1.125

6 0
2 years ago
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