Answer:
A: C = 2: 1
Step-by-step explanation:
Please see the attached pictures for the full solution.
Further explanantion (2nd image):
The reason why the ratio of A: C is equal to the ratio if 2A: 2C is that the number of parts of A and C is equal, which is 2 parts. If I were to divide both 2A and 2C by 2 to find the ratio of A: C, I would obtain 15: 15/2. However, ratios are expressed as whole numbers and thus, we would multiply the whole ratio by 2 again and the answer would still be 30: 15. This ratio is not in the simplest form since both can be divided by 15. Thus, dividing both sides of the ratio by 15 will leave us with the final answer of
A: C= 2: 1.
☆ An alternative method is to simplify the ratio 3B: 2C at the beginning.
3B: 2C
= 36: 15
= 12: 5
Multiply the first ratio by 2 so 3B has 12 parts in both ratios:
2A: 3B
= 10: 12
Combining the 2 ratios together,
2A: 3B: 2C
= 10: 6: 5
2A: 2C
= 10: 5
= 2: 1
A: C= 2: 1
Answer:
- 7 is (14x)°
Step-by-step explanation:
In the diagram, the measure of angle 2 is 126°, the measure of angle 4 is (7x)°, and the measure of angle 5 is (4x + 4)°. A transversal intersects 2 lines to form 8 angles. Clockwise from the top left, the angles are 1, 2, 3, 4; 5, 6, 7, 8. What is the measure of angle 7, to the nearest degree? The nearest degree measure of angle 7 is (14x)°
Step-by-step explanation:
Let
x
be the kg of coffee of brand A in the mix and
y
be the kg of coffee of brand B in the mix.
The total kg must be
50
.
x
+
y
=
50
The cost per kg of the mix must br
$
7.20
. For this, the total cost of the mix will be
6
x
+
8
y
, so the total cost per kg of the mix will be
6
x
+
8
y
50
.
6
x
+
8
y
50
=
7.20
Now that we have our two equations, we can solve.
6
x
+
8
y
=
7.20
⋅
50
6
x
+
8
y
=
360
From the first equation, we can multiply both sides by
6
to get:
6
x
+
6
y
=
300
Subtracting, we get:
2
y
=
60
y
=
30
Thus, we need
30
kg of brand B in our mix. This means that
50
−
30
=
20
kg will be of brand A.
The answer for this is (0,8) and (8,0)
Answer:
Option D.
Step-by-step explanation:
We need to find the quotient of
It can rewritten as
![[\because \dfrac{a^m}{a^n}=a^{m-n}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%5Cbecause%20%5Cdfrac%7Ba%5Em%7D%7Ba%5En%7D%3Da%5E%7Bm-n%7D%5D)
The required expression is .
Therefore, the correct option is D.
