Answer:
$1.7; 44 times
Explanation:
a) EPS(20X1):
= Earnings after taxes / Number of shares
= $340,000 / 200,000
= $1.7
P/E ratio(20X1):
= Price / EPS
= $74.80 / $1.7
= 44 times
EPS(20X2):
= Earnings after taxes / Number of shares
= $378,000 / 200,000
= $1.89
P/E ratio(20X2):
= Price / EPS
= $83.00 / $1.89
= 43.92 times
Answer:
Earnings Per share = $0.83
Diluted Earnings per share = $0.71
Explanation:
Basic Earnings per share is how much each common stock share earns in profits and Diluted Earnings includes the options and bonds in its calculations for outstanding shares
formulas
Earnings Per share = (net income - Preferred stock dividends)/ outstanding number of shares
= $150/180
= $0.83
Diluted Earnings per share = (net income - Preferred stock dividends)/ outstanding number of shares
= $150/210
= $0.71
Outstanding number of shares in millions
opening 200
minus treasury stock - 24
issued stock 4
Basic outstanding shares = 180 shares
plus share Options 30
Diluted shares 210
Answer:
A) Year 1 cost of goods sold
B) Year 2 cost of goods sold
D) Year 2 beginning inventory
Explanation:
A) Year 1 expense of merchandise sold : The Current year cost of Goods Sold is processed by deducting finishing stock from Opening Inventory and Purchases made during the year. So in the event that the completion stock isn't right, at that point the result of above calculation will not be right so the Year 1 expense of merchandise sold for example (Current year cost of Goods Sold) will be inaccurate.
D) Year 2 starting stock: year 2 starting stock is equivalent to year 1 completion stock. So on the off chance that off-base stock estimation is made at end of earlier year, at that point current year opening worth will be carried on as off-base.
B) Year 2 expense of merchandise sold: The explanation is same as ans q(i.e. Year 1 expense of merchandise sold) as off-base convey forward opening stock worth will bring about wrong calculation of cost of products sold for year 2.
Answer:
1. When China decides to reduce its capital investment in the US, US's capital inflows, which are a source of loanable funds in the US, take a hit. This leads to a reduction in supply of loanable funds in the US, shifting the supply curve leftward.
2. When a ban is imposed on fast food restaurants, the amount loanable funds demanded by the fast food industry reduces, leading to a leftward shift m the demand curve of loanable funds.
3. When fast food restaurants are allowed to open franchised locations, the amount loanable funds demanded by the fast food industry increases, leading to a rightward shift m the demand curve of loanable funds.
4. When the US government reduces its deficit, it reduces its borrowings. A reduction in borrowing by the US government leads to a reduction in the demand for loanable funds, and therefore shifts the demand curve fur loanable funds leftward.
5. When individual start to spend more owing to the wealth effect, savings reduce, leading to a fall in the supply of loanable funds. Due to this, there occurs a leftward shift in the supply calve for loanable funds.
Answer:
Total FV= $3,433,859.29
Explanation:
<u>First, we will calculate the future value of each equal annual deposit. Then, the ending value in 33 years of investment as a whole.</u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV1= {3,500*[(1.137^6) - 1]} / 0.137= $29,648.89
FV2= {8,800*[(1.137^11) - 1]} /0.137= $199,476.80
FV3= {14,400*[(1.137^16) - 1]} /0.137= $714,882.03
<u>Now, the total future value:</u>
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
FV1= 29,648.89*(1.137^27)= 949,600.61
FV2= 199,476.80*(1.137^17)= 1,769,376.65
FV3= 714,882.03
Total FV= $3,433,859.29
