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1 year ago

Isosceles triangle with one angle of 100. What would most likely be the other angles?

2 answers:

4 0

Isoceles triangles have one pair of congruent base angles opposite their congruent sides. Also, the angles in a triangle add up to 180°. Therefore, we can set up this equation:

100 + x + x = 180

(we know it's not the 100° angle that has a congruent match because that would cause the total angle measure to go above 180°)

100 + 2x = 180
Subtract 100 from each side.
2x = 80
Divide by 2.
x = 40°

Both of the other angles would be 40°.

Sergeu [11.5K]1 year ago

3 0

There's no "most likely" about it.

==> Every isosceles triangle has two equal angles.
==> In this one, the 100-degrees angle is either one of the two equal angles,
or else it isn't.
==> If the 100 is one of the two equal angles, then the other one is also 100,
and the sum of the angles in this triangle ... even without the third one ...
is already more than 180 degrees.
==> So the 100 CAN'T be one of the equal angles. It must be the third angle.

-- Now there are 80 degrees left over to split between the other two angles,
which ARE equal.

-- The other two angles, which are not 100 degrees, MUST be 40 degrees each.

Not probably, not maybe, not could-be, and not "most likely". They must be.

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Your band is one of 8 bands competing at the battle of the bands. The order of the performances is determined at random. The fir

lorasvet [3.4K]

Answer:

1.79 %.

Step-by-step explanation:

you have to calculate the probability of a series of events before you can calculate the final probability.

The first event is that the band plays on Friday.

If there are 8 bands, but only 5 play on Friday, then the probability that they will play on Friday is

5/8

Now, the second event that they are the last ones is 1/5, since they are 5 bands.

Therefore the probability that they will play on Saturday and last is

5/8 * 1/5 = 1/8

Now, for the rival band it would be, knowing that on Friday there is already a quota assigned and one band less, the probability that they will play that day is

4/7

as they play before the other group, it would be 1/4, as there is already a quota assigned.

The final probability would then be:

4/7 * 1/4 = 1/7

Now the probability that the band gives the last performance on Friday night and your rival band performs immediately before them, is:

1/8 * 1/7 = 0.0179

That is 1.79 %.

3 0

2 years ago

The water under a draw bridge was 15 feet deep at midnight. As the tide went out, the

Vsevolod [243]

Answer:

80 minutes or 1 h 20 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

15-13=2

2/0.025=80

So we can conclude that it takes 80 minutes till it reaches 13 feet.

7 0

1 year ago

What is the true solution to In 20+In 5= 2 In x? #31

Neko [114]

Answer:

ln20+ln5=2lnx

ln(20x5)=lnx^2

ln100=1nx^2

100=x^2

square root

x=10

Hope This Helps!

5 0

2 years ago

n 2019, approximately 97.4% of all the runners who started the Boston Marathon (in Boston, Massachusetts, USA) were able to comp

Zarrin [17]

Answer:

0.1199 = 11.99% probability that at least 5 of them did not finish the marathon

Step-by-step explanation:

For each runner, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they finished the marathon, or they did not. The probability of a runner completing the marathon is independent of any other runner. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

97.4% finished:

This means that 100 - 97.4 = 2.6% = 0.026 did not finish, which means that $p = 0.026$

100 runners are chosen at random

This means that $n = 100$

Find the probability that at least 5 of them did not finish the marathon

This is:

$P(X \geq 5) = 1 - P(X < 5)$

In which

$P(X < 5) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)$

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{100,0}.(0.026)^{0}.(0.974)^{100} = 0.0718$

$P(X = 1) = C_{100,1}.(0.026)^{1}.(0.974)^{99} = 0.1916$

$P(X = 2) = C_{100,2}.(0.026)^{2}.(0.974)^{98} = 0.2531$

$P(X = 3) = C_{100,3}.(0.026)^{3}.(0.974)^{97} = 0.2207$

$P(X = 4) = C_{100,4}.(0.026)^{4}.(0.974)^{96} = 0.1429$

$P(X < 5) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) = 0.0718 + 0.1916 + 0.2531 + 0.2207 + 0.1429 = 0.8801$

$P(X \geq 5) = 1 - P(X < 5) = 1 - 0.8801 = 0.1199$

0.1199 = 11.99% probability that at least 5 of them did not finish the marathon

4 0

1 year ago

A square has a side of 3x - 4 what is the area of the Square in terms of x?

Doss [256]

Answer:

9x2−24x+16

Hope this helps!

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for a square is side times side since every side is of equal length. Because we are leaving the answer in terms of x you just multiply 3x-4 by 3x-4 and simplify and you get 9x2−24x+16

Please mark as brainliest :)

3 0

1 year ago