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Hoochie [10]
2 years ago
13

What is the value of x?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Neporo4naja [7]2 years ago
5 0

11.313708499

Answer:

11.313708499=16

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What is the sum of 14 and the opposite of 12
frozen [14]

I'm assuming that by "opposite of 12", it means -12

If so, the answer would be 2

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2 years ago
A manufacturer of skis offered chain discounts of 10/5/4 to many of its customers. Joe Jones ordered skis that had a total list
expeople1 [14]
,Okay, so here is how to calculate the amount of the trade discount:

I: $149,500 * .10 (10%) = 14,950 (this is the 10% discount)
149,500 - 14,950 = 134,550 (how much it costs with a 10% discount)

II: 134,550 * .5 (5%) = 6727.50
134,550 - 6727.50 = 127,822.50

III: 127,822.50 * .4 (4%) = 5112.90

The amount of the trade discount is: $14,950 + $6727.50 + $5112.90 = 26,790.40 dollars.
6 0
2 years ago
Leanne works at a restaurant. For dinner, there is a choice of 3 main dishes and 2 sides.
aalyn [17]

Answer:

I feel like its that but im rlly not sure.

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
H(y) models the leading number of home runs for season y on the National League between the years 2000-2010, according to the ta
alexandr1967 [171]

Answer:

Integers

2000\leqx\leq2010

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A probability calculator is required on this problem; answer to six decimal places. Suppose we will spin the wheel pictured 400
KiRa [710]

Answer:

P(90< X< 110)= P(\frac{90-80}{8}

And we can find this probability with this difference:

P(90< X< 110)=P(z

And we can find the real value with the following excel code using the binomial distribution:

"=BINOM.DIST(110,400,0.2,TRUE)-BINOM.DIST(89,400,0.2,TRUE)"

And we got 0.118 a very close value from the value obtained using the normal approximation

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=400, p=0.2)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=400*0.2=80 \geq 10

n(1-p)=400*(1-0.2)=320 \geq 10

So we see that we satisfy the conditions and then we can apply the approximation.

If we appply the approximation the new mean and standard deviation are:

E(X)=np=400*0.2=80

\sigma=\sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{400*0.2(1-0.2)}=8

So then we can approximate the random variable as X \sim N(\mu = 80, \sigma = 8)

And we want this probability:

P(90< X< 110)

We can use the z score formula given by:

z = \frac{x -\mu}{\sigma}

And replacing we got:

P(90< X< 110)= P(\frac{90-80}{8}

And we can find this probability with this difference:

P(90< X< 110)=P(z

And we can find the real value with the following excel code using the binomial distribution:

"=BINOM.DIST(110,400,0.2,TRUE)-BINOM.DIST(89,400,0.2,TRUE)"

And we got 0.118 a very close value from the value obtained using the normal approximation

8 0
2 years ago
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