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Elina [12.6K]
2 years ago
15

Careco Company and Audaco Inc are identical in size and capital structure. However, the riskiness of their assets and cash flows

are somewhat different, resulting in Careco having a WACC of 10% and Audaco a WACC of 12%. Careco is considering Project X, which has an IRR of 10.5% and is of the same risk as a typical Careco project. Audaco is considering Project Y, which has an IRR of 11.5% and is of the same risk as a typical Audaco project. Now assume that the two companies merge and form a new company, Careco/Audaco Inc. Moreover, the new company's market risk is an average of the pre-merger companies' market risks, and the merger has no impact on either the cash flows or the risks of Projects X and Y. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) if evaluated using the correct post-merger wacc, project x would have a negative npv.
B) after the merger, careco/audaco would have a corporate wacc of 11%. therefore, it should reject project x but accept project y.
C) careco/audaco's wacc, as a result of the merger, would be 10%.
D) after the merger, careco/audaco should select project y but reject project x. if the firm does this, its corporate wacc will fall to 10.5%.
E) if the firm evaluates these projects and all other projects at the new overall corporate wacc, it will probably become riskier over time.
Business
1 answer:
LenKa [72]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

E) if the firm evaluates these projects and all other projects at the new overall corporate wacc, it will probably become riskier over time.

Explanation:

Before the merger, Audaco would have rejected any project with an IRR of less than 12% (more risky investments) while Careco only required a 10% IRR (less risky projects). But after the merger the combined WACC will be lower than Audaco's, but higher than Careco's. Therefore, the new merged company will start accepting more risky projects and that tendency will continue over time. Eventually, the company's WACC will have to adjust and increase, and the cycle will continue.

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Please find full question attached

Answer:

Inferential statistics

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descriptive statistics

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Economists occasionally speak of "helicopter money" as a short-hand approach to explaining to increases in the money supply. sup
Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer and Explanation:

a. In case when the new bills are kept by the people so the supply of money would be increase by a very similar amount as it was dropped off the plane. That's because the banking is not in the image, so there is no impact on the money multiplier.

b. If the amount is deposited in the bank, the cash supply would rise with the money multiplier being taken into account. Money Multiplier = Deposited currency / reserve ratio. The overall supply of money that will raise be 1 billion / 0.1.

c.Again, if a 100% reserve banking is exercised by the bank, so the boosted money supply would be the same value as it has been deposited.

d. If half of the value is held by the public and half of the value is deposited with the bank at 10% of the reserves, the supply of money rises by half of the amount which is held by the public in addition of half of the value / reserve ratio that is 10%.

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You bought one of Great White Shark Repellant Co.’s 8 percent coupon bonds one year ago for $1,044. These bonds make annual paym
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Answer:

17.4%

Explanation:

original purchase price 1 year ago = $1,044

current market price:

0.06 = {80 + [(1,000 - MV)/13]} /  [(1,000 + MV)/2]

0.06 x [(1,000 + MV)/2] = 80 + [(1,000 - MV)/13]

0.06 x (500 + 0.5MV) = 80 + 76.92 - 0.0769MV

30 + 0.03MV = 156.92 - 0.0769MV

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MV = 126.92 / 0.1069 = $1,187.28

total returns during the year = $80 (coupon) + ($1,187.28 - $1,044) = $223.28

nominal return on investment = $223.28 / $1,044 = 21.387%

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mojhsa [17]

Answer:

Spot USD/GBP rate = 1.5711

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c) I would sell GBP forward for 1 year @ 1.60.

This means that I will receive USD 1.60 for every 1 GBP I sell instead of  1.56797 that is the ideal deal.

This is how I would take advantage of the arbitrage opportunity.

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