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swat32
2 years ago
9

Turnbull Co. has a target capital structure of 58% debt, 6% preferred stock, and 36% common equity. It has a before-tax cost of

debt of 8.2%, and its cost of preferred stock is 9.3%. If Turnbull can raise all of its equity capital from retained earnings, its cost of common equity will be 12.4%. However, if it is necessary to raise new common equity, it will carry a cost of 14.2%. If its current tax rate is 40%, how much higher will Turnbull’s weighted average cost of capital (WACC) be if it has to raise additional common equity capital by issuing new common stock instead of raising the funds through retained earnings? (Note: Round your intermediate calculations to two decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
Elis [28]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Turnbull's weighted average cost of capital will be higher by 0.65% if it has to raise additional common equity capital.

Explanation:

By combining the WACC formula and retained earnings cost of capital,we will arrive at;

WACC = Debt W × after tax cost of debt + Preferred stock weight × cost of capital + Equity W × Cost of capital

= 58% × 4.92% + 6% × 9.3% + 36% × 12.4%

= 2.85% + 0.56% + 4.46%

= 7.87%

Also, using the same WACC formula and using common equity cost of capital, , we will arrive at the below;

WACC = Debt W × after tax cost of debt + preferred stock weight × cost of capital + Equity W × cost of capital

= 58% × 4.92% + 6% × 9.3% + 36% × 14.2%

= 2.85% + 0.56% + 5.11%

= 8.52%

Therefore, increase cost using common equity over retained earnings is [ 8.52% - 7.87%]

= 0.65%

N.B we arrived at 4.92% for after tax by;

Pre tax 8.2%

Current tax rate 40%

= Pre tax × ( 1 - cost of debt)

= 8.2% × ( 1 - 40%)

= 8.2% × 0.6%

= 4.92%

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iogann1982 [59]

Answer:

$0

Explanation:

There are two Step for the computation of casualty loss deduction if the casualty loss is personal

Step 1  Reduce $100 per casualty event from the casualty loss

Step 2 Reduce 10% of the AGI from the amount you get from step 1

Data

Loss = $2,500

AGI = $35,000

Deduction =?

Solution

Step 1 =  $2,500 - $100 = $2,400

Step 2: $2,400 - ($35,000 x 10%) = $0

If the amount in step 2 is $0 then the person is not eligible for casualty loss deduction  

8 0
2 years ago
On December 31, 2018, Spearmint, Inc., issued $450,000 of 9 percent, 3-year bonds for cash of $461,795. After recording the rela
Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

December 31, 2018, bonds are issued

Dr Cash 461,795

    Cr Bonds payable 450,000

    Cr Premium on bonds payable 11,795

amortization expense per coupon = $11,795 / 6 coupon payments = $1,965.83

June 30, 2019, first coupon payment

Dr interest expense 18,284.17

Dr Premium on bonds payable 1,965.83

    Cr Cash 20,250

The amortization of the premium on bonds payable decreases the interest expense.

7 0
1 year ago
At December 31, 2017, Indigo Girls Company has outstanding noncancelable purchase commitments for 36,000 gallons, at $3.00 per g
Whitepunk [10]

Answer:

The journal entries are as follows:

(i) On December 31, 2017

Unrealized gain or loss income A/c             Dr. $10,800

To estimated purchase commitment liability                    $10,800

(To record other income and expenses)

Workings:

Unrealized gain or loss income = 36,000 × ($3 - $2.7)

                                                    = 36,000 × $0.3

                                                     = $10,800

(ii) On January 1, 2018

Raw material A/c (36,000 × $2.7)                     Dr. $97,200

Estimated purchase commitment liability A/c  Dr. $10,800

To accounts payable                                                                $108,000

(To record the materials received in January 2018)

3 0
2 years ago
Adnan Hassan earned 5% commission as a sales trainee. After
wel

Answer:

He earns $296780 as a Sales Trainee and $377094 as a Sales Associate

<em />

Explanation:

Given

Let x represents his sales as a sales trainee

Let x represents his sales as a sales associate

Total Sales: x + y = 673874

Total Commission: 0.05x + 0.08y = 45006.52

Required

Find x and y

Equations

x + y = 673874 --- (1)

0.05x + 0.08y = 45006.52 --- (2)

Make  y the subject of formula in (1)

x + y = 673874

y = 673874 - x

Substitute this in (2)

0.05x + 0.08y = 45006.52

0.05x + 0.08(673874 - x) = 45006.52

Open Bracket

0.05x + 53909.92 - 0.08x = 45006.52

Collect Like Terms

0.05x  - 0.08x = 45006.52 - 53909.92

- 0.03x = -8903.4

Divide through by -0.03

x = \frac{-8903.4}{-0.03}

x = 296780

Recall that

y = 673874 - x

y = 673874 - 296780

y = 377094

<em>Hence;</em>

<em>He earns $296780 as a Sales Trainee and $377094 as a Sales Associate</em>

8 0
2 years ago
White Company has two departments, Cutting and Finishing. The company uses a job-order costing system and computes a predetermin
const2013 [10]

Question not complete

Direct Labour Cost is missing

Direct Labor Cost ----- $50,000.00 $270,000.00

Answer:

a.

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = $5.5 per machine hour = $5.5 per machine hour

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = $12.2 per labour hour

b. Total Manufacturing Cost = $644

c. Yes

Explanation:

a. Compute the predetermined overhead rate to be used in each department.

Given

Cutting Department

The Cutting Department bases its rate on machine-hours

Manufacturing Overhead Costs = $264,000

Machine Hours = 48,000

Finishing Department

The Finishing Department bases its rate on direct labor-hours.

Manufacturing Overhead Costs = $366,000

Direct Labour Cost = $270,000

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = Manufacturing Overhead Cost/Machine Hours

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = $264,000/48,000

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = $5.5 per machine hour

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = Manufacturing Overhead Cost/Machine Hours

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = $366,000/$270,000

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = 1.36

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = 136% direct labour cost

b.

The Cutting Department bases its rate on machine-hours

Given

Machine hours = 80 machine hours

Overhead Rate = $5.5 per machine hours ------ Calculated

The Finishing Department bases its rate on direct labor-hours.

Given

Direct Labour Cost = 150

Overhead Rate = 136% labour cost ------ Calculated

Overhead Applied (Cutting Department) = 80 * 5.5

Overhead Applied = 440

Overhead Applied (Finishing Department) = 136% * 150

Overhead Applied = $204

Total Overhead Applied = $440 + $204

Total = $644

c. Yes

If they use a plantwide rate based on direct labor cost and if the jobs has longer machine hours and small amount of labor cost they will be charged less overhead cost.

6 0
1 year ago
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