solution:
The probability mass function for binomial distribution is,
Where,
X=0,1,2,3,…..; q=1-p
find the probability that (p∧ ≤ 0.06) , substitute the values of sample units (n) , and the probability of nonconformities (p) in the probability mass function of binomial distribution.
Consider x to be the number of non-conformities. It follows a binomial distribution with n being 50 and p being 0.03. That is,
binomial (50,0.02)
Also, the estimate of the true probability is,
p∧ = x/50
The probability mass function for binomial distribution is,
Where,
X=0,1,2,3,…..; q=1-p
The calculation is obtained as
P(p^ ≤ 0.06) = p(x/20 ≤ 0.06)
= 50cx ₓ (0.03)x ₓ (1-0.03)50-x
= (50c0 ₓ (0.03)0 ₓ (1-0.03)50-0 + 50c1(0.03)1 ₓ (1-0.03)50-1 + 50c2 ₓ (0.03)2 ₓ (1-0.03)50-2 +50c3 ₓ (0.03)3 ₓ (1- 0.03)50-3 )
=( ₓ (0.03)0 ₓ (1-0.03)50-0 + ₓ (0.03)1 ₓ (1-0.03)50-1 + ₓ (0.03)2 ₓ (1-0.03)50-2 ₓ (0.03)3 ₓ (1-0.03)50-3 )
Answer:
The shape of the pebbles is a result of weathering and deposition.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: 18
Step-by-step explanation: well 9 x 12 = 108 then divide it by 6 and yyou get 18 wich is 6 x 3
Answer:
5%
Step-by-step explanation:
Total 'halwa' made = 1
Divided into four equal portion = 1/4
Arrival of an unexpected guest = 1/5
By what percentage has each family member's share been reduced:
Change in the sharing proportion:
Previous share ratio - new sharing ratio
(1/4 - 1/5) = (5 - 4) / 20 = 1/20
That means total reduction in the sharing = 1/ 20
Since each member comes contributed equally:
Reduction in each family member's share ;
(1 / 20) ÷ 4
(1 / 20) * 1/4 = 1/ 80
Percentage reduction:
(Reduction / original share) * 100%
[(1/80) ÷ (1/4)] * 100
(1/80 * 4/1) * 100%
(1/20) * 100%
= 5%
Reduction in each family members share = 5%
Answer: IX - 4I ≤ 4
Step-by-step explanation:
In the numer line we can see that our possible values of x are in the range:
0 ≤ x ≤ 8
And we want to find an absolute value equation such that this set is the set of possible solutions.
An example can be:
IX - 4I ≤ 4
To construct this, we first find the midpoint M of our set, in this case is 4.
Then we write:
Ix - MI ≤ IMI
Notice that i am using the minor and equal sign, this is because the black dots means that the values x = 0 and x = 8 are included, if the dots were empty dots, it would be an open set and we should use the < > signs.
