Suzy makes 675
Katie makes 500
Janine makes 800
Answer:
0.006% probability that the final vote count is unanimous.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each person, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they vote yes, or they vote no. The probability of a person voting yes or no is independent of any other person. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

And p is the probability of X happening.
Random voting:
So 50% of voting yes, 50% no, so 
15 members:
This means that 
What is the probability that the final vote count is unanimous?
Either all vote no(P(X = 0)) or all vote yes(P(X = 15)). So

In which



So

0.006% probability that the final vote count is unanimous.
Answer:
The inverse function is 
Step-by-step explanation:
The given function is
.
This function is only invertible on the interval,
.
To find the inverse on this interval, we interchange
and
.

We now make
the subject to get,



But the given interval is
, This implies that,
.

Answer:
I would guess its D. Because it is the one that makes the most sense.
Step-by-step explanation:
H and L has to be on the same day with no other application so not A, B, or C because there is L in all of them.
Hope I helped!