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djverab [1.8K]
1 year ago
12

In how many ways can you place 50 identical balls in six distinct urns such that each urn contains an odd number of balls

Mathematics
1 answer:
mezya [45]1 year ago
8 0

Answer:

80730

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is c(27,5)=27*26*25*24*23/5!. Here is why.

Let us solve a simpler problem. In how many ways 25 identical balls can be placed in six distinct urns such that no urn is empty?

25 balls in a row make 24 places for five dividers, so the answer is c(24,5).

2. Next problem. In how many ways 50 identical balls can be placed in six distinct urns such that no urn is empty and each urn contains even number of balls.

We group 50 balls in 25 pairs, so the answer is the same as in the previous problem which is

c(48/2,5)=c(24,5).

Let us denote the content of each urn as

u(1),u(2),…u(6). Note that each u(i) is even. Denote u(i) as u(i)=2k(i) where k is a natural number. We have

2k(1)+2k(2)+2k(3)+2k(4)+2k(5)+2k(6)=50.

3. Now let us proceed to the original problem where odd number of balls in each urn is required.

We have

2k(1)-1+2k(2)-1+2k(3)-1+2k(4)-1+2k(5)-1+2k(6)-1=50 or

2k(1)+2k(2)+2k(3)+2k(4)+2k(5)+2k(6)=56.

So the original problem reduces to previous problem where even number of balls in each urn is required but the total number of balls is 56 instead of 50.

Its answer is c(54/2,5)=c(27,5).

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Answer: $12

Step-by-step explanation:

So total they bought 4 software packages. 40 * 4 = 160

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4 0
1 year ago
10. Suppose that we draw cards repeatedly and with replacement from a file of 100 cards, 50 of which refer to male and 50 to fem
lions [1.4K]

Answer:

11/16

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 100 cards out of which there are 50 male and 50 female cards

M= male card F= female cards

P(M)= 50/100= 1/2

P(F)= 50/100= 1/2

Following are the combination in which we can obtain second Female card before Third Male card

FF, FMF, MFF,  MMFF, MFMF, FMMF

So, P(FF)= \frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}= 1/4

P(FMF)=  \frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}= 1/8

and P(MFF)= \frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}= 1/8

P(MMFF)= \frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}

=1/16

P(MFMF)= \frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}

=1/16

P(FMMF)= \frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}

=1/16

so the required probability is the sum of all these

=1/4 + 1/8 + 1/8 + 1/16 + 1/16 + 1/16= 11/16

7 0
2 years ago
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avanturin [10]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

∠EYV is half the difference of arcs EV and EH

  (1/2)(EV -EH) = ∠EYV

  (1/2)(EV -85°) = 35° . . . . fill in the given values

  EV -85° = 70° . . . . . . . . .multiply by 2

  EV = 155° . . . . . . . . . . . . add 85°

5 0
1 year ago
Explain how you can use a model to find 6x17
777dan777 [17]
Maybe by useing cubes like 6 groups of 17 or u can also use a number line like the elementary skills
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1 year ago
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Answer:

The correct answer is:

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This is because Juan got a $0.50 raise which means that his new rate will be $0.50 more than his original rate (r).

6 0
2 years ago
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