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alexandr1967 [171]
2 years ago
6

The manhawkin fund has an expected return of 16% and a standard deviation of 20%. the risk-free rate is 4%. what is the reward-t

o-volatility ratio for the manhawkin fund?
Business
1 answer:
ArbitrLikvidat [17]2 years ago
5 0
We know that expected return is 16%. The standard deviation is 20%. And in addition, the risk-free rate is 4%. Denote with x: expected return, "Y": the risk-free rate and sigma: standard deviation. The reward-to-volatility ratio is(x-y) / (sigma) = (16-4) / 20 = .6
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Answer:

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Explanation:

The demand law states that when the price decreases, the quantity demanded will increase -moving the demand curve to the right, and when the price increases, the quantity demanded decreases -moving the demand curve to the left. The price-quantity demanded relation is inversely proportional.

Thus, if the price of Pepsi decreases, all else constant -<em>ceteris paribus</em>, the quantity demanded will increase moving the demand curve to the right.

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1 year ago
"Sally is in charge of erecting billboards along highways. The billboards display the logos of newly launched brands in the mark
USPshnik [31]

Answer:

preattentive processing

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Preattentive processing -

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3 0
2 years ago
Befriends corporation uses the trademark of community life inc., a social media site, as a meta tag without community life's per
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7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Army officers use the expression "not in my lane", which derives from the basic marksmanship function of establishing firing lan
valentinak56 [21]

Answer:

D. Job specialization

Explanation:

Job specialization is the situation whereby overall task of a company are broken down into smaller various parts. With job specialization, machines used are more specialized, workers are more proficient and training is simplified. It is the situation whereby people with great skills and expertise in a certain area are assigned to that area to become more effective.

5 0
2 years ago
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Armstrong Corporation manufactures bicycle parts. The company currently has a $19,800 inventory of parts that have become obsole
FinnZ [79.3K]

Answer:

If sold without Modification, Armstrong Corporation will incur a loss of $12,500.

If the Corporation modifies the Stock and then Sell it, its loss will be $9,200.

Explanation:

<u>Workings</u>

Without Modification:

Selling Price                   = 7,300

Less: Cost of Inventory = 19,800

Loss                                = $12,500.

Modification:

Selling Price                   = 20,900

Less: Cost of Inventory = 19,800

        Modification Cost = 10,300

Loss                                = $9,200.

If you have any queries, feel free to ask. Thanks!

4 0
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