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vlada-n [284]
2 years ago
11

Evaluate the series shown. Then write an equivalent series using summation notation such that the lower index starts at 0.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Vitek1552 [10]2 years ago
8 0
The summation indicates the sum from n = 1 to n = 3 of the expression 2(n+5).

2 (n+5) = 2n + 10

2n + 10 denotes an Arithmetic Series, with a common difference of two and first term as 12.

For n =1, it equals 12
For n = 2, it equals 14
For n = 3, it equals 16

So the sum from n=1 to n=3 will be 12 + 14 + 16 = 42

Sum of an Arithmetic Series can also be written as:

S_{n} = \frac{n}{2}(2a_{1} +(n-1)d)

Using the value of a₁ and d, we can simplify the expression as:

S_{n} = \frac{n}{2} (24+2(n-1)) \\  \\ 
 S_{n} =n (12+(n-1))\\  \\ 
 S_{n} =n (11+n)

This expression is equivalent to the given expression and will yield the same result.

For n=3, we get the sum as:

S₃ = 3(11+3) = 42
Ira Lisetskai [31]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Sample Response: Substitute the values 1, 2, and 3 into the expression 2(n + 5), then find the sum. The summation is equal to 12 + 14 + 16 = 42. You can rewrite the summation as the sum of 2(n + 6) from 0 to 2.

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Answer:

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a) Share of the company that SBI Caps should require today to get a required rate of return of 50%.

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b) If the company had 1,000,000 (100,000 x10) shares outstanding before the private placement, SBI Caps should purchase

1,000,000 shares = 50% of (1,000,000 + 1,000,000) shares

Assuming the founding promoters are not giving up their shares, instead, new equity shares are being issued.

c) The price per share SBI Caps should agree to pay, if her required return was 50% is

Rs.50 per share, which will provide the required additional equity financing of (Rs.50 million) since Rs.50 x 1,000,000 equals Rs.50 million.

d) Pre money and post money valuations:

These are based on the calculated Market Price of Rs.1,000 per share from the Price/Earnings Ratio.

Pre money valuation will be Rs.1,000 x 1,000,000 shares = Rs.1 billion

Post money valuation will be Rs.1,000 x 2,000,000 shares = Rs.2 billion

e) Carried interests of the VC and the promoters

VC's carried interest = share of profits = 50% xRs.50 million = Rs.25 million

Promoters' carried interest = Rs.25 million

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Calculation of share in the company:

SBI Cap's required rate of return is 50%

If she invests Rs.50 million today, her expected return will be equal to Rs.50 million x 50% = Rs.25 million

Since rate of return = Net Income/Initial Investment or (Current value of investment - Initial Investment)/Initial Investment.

This return will be equal to 50% of the total net income of Rs.50 million

b) Price/Earnings P/E ratio = Market price per share/Earnings per share (EPS)

Since P/E ratio of similar companies = 20 times,

The company's P/E = 20 times x EPS

With calculated EPS = Rs.50 million /1,000,000 = Rs.50

Therefore, price per share = 20 x Rs.50 = Rs.1,000

Pre money valuation = Rs.1,000 x 1 million shares = Rs.1 billion

Post money valuation = Rs.1,000 x 2 million shares = Rs.2 billion

c) The carried interest is the share of profits to which the promoters and the Venture Capitalists are entitled.  Their respective shares are 50% of the net income = Rs.25 million each.

d) The pre money and post money valuations:  The pre money valuation is the valuation of the company before the additional equity financing.  The post money valuation is the valuation of the company after the additional equity financing.  There are many ways to value a company.  In this case, we have used the P/E ratio as a basis for the valuation.  However, we did not dilute the earnings per share post money, for simplicity.

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Answer:

The variable c represents the domain as it is the independent variable.

The domain of the function F(c) is given by c ≥ 0.

So, only positive values for the input make sense.

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Step-by-step explanation:

If F(c) represents the earning of a volleyball team from selling c cupcakes and each cupcake costs $2 each, then the equation that models the situation is  

F(c) = 2c ..... (1)

The variable c represents the domain as it is the independent variable. (Answer)

The domain of the function F(c) is given by c ≥ 0. (Answer)

So, only positive values for the input make sense. (Answer)

The upper limit of the domain is +∞ and the lower limit is 0. (Answer)

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Show all your work. Indicate clearly the methods you use, because you will be scored on the correctness of your methods as well
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Answer:

The  value is  P(A) =  0.133617

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The  mean is  \mu =  7.5

  The standard deviation is  \sigma  =  0.2

  The safest water level is  between  7.2 and  7.8

Generally the probability that the selected pool has a pH level that is not considered safe is mathematically represented as

       P(A) =  1 - P(7.2 \le X  \le 7.8 )

Here  

      P(7.2 < X  < 7.8 ) = P(\frac{ 7.2 - \mu }{\sigma } <  \frac{X - \mu }{ \sigma }

Generally \frac{X - \mu }{ \sigma } =  Z (The  \ standardized \  value  \  of  X )

So

 P(7.2 < X  < 7.8 ) = P(\frac{ 7.2 - 7.5 }{0.2 } < Z    

 P(7.2 < X  < 7.8 ) = P(-1.5 < Z  

=>  P(7.2 < X  < 7.8 ) = P(Z <  1.5) - P(  Z < - 1.5)

From the z-table the probability of  (Z <  -1.5) and   (  Z <1.5)  are

    P(Z <  1.5) =  0.93319

and  

    P(Z <  -1.5) =  0.066807

So

      P(7.2 < X  < 7.8 ) =0.93319 - 0.066807

       P(7.2 < X  < 7.8 ) =0.0866383

So

   P(A) =  1 - 0.0866383

=>  P(A) =  0.133617

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2 years ago
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