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Leto [7]
2 years ago
11

`bar(JK)` is dilated by a scale factor of n with the origin as the center of dilation, resulting in the image `bar(J'K')`. The s

lope of `bar(JK)` is m. If the length of `bar(JK)` is l, what is the length of `bar(J'K')`? A. m × n × l B. (m + n) × l C. m × l D. n × l
Mathematics
2 answers:
dalvyx [7]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Length of Bar JK=l

Bar (JK) is dilated by a scale factor of n, having origin as the center of dilation.

New line segment formed named  bar (J'K').

As given slope of bar(JK) =m

When we dilate a line segment with respect to origin , having origin as the center of dilation, there is no effect of slope on Dilation.

Length of bar (J'K')= (Length of bar JK)×(Scale factor)

                             = l×n Or n×l

Option (D) is correct.

                           




Ronch [10]2 years ago
5 0
<h3>Answer: Option D. n x l</h3>

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Luba_88 [7]

Answer:

120*2.75*60/5280

= 3.75

Step-by-step explanation:

So James is walking at 120 steps a minute, there are 60 minutes in one hour, and 5,280 feet in a mile. So, to find how quickly James is walking, we multiply how many steps he is taking a minute by how much distance each step is (120 * 2.75) that gives us how much distance in one minute, so we then multiply by 60 because there are 60 minutes in one hour. Then divide the entire equation by how many feet are in one mile (5,280) giving us the answer 3.75 miles per hour. And the equation 120*2.75*60/5280

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1 year ago
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Misha solves the equation 3 x minus 2 (x + 3) = 4 (x minus 2) minus 7 by applying the distributive property to each side of the
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Answer:

2(x+3)=4

2x+6=4

2x=4-6

2x=-2

2x÷2

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Which linear equation has no solution? 4x+7=3x+7
ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

x=0

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4x+7=3x+7

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1 year ago
The number of pits in a corroded steel coupon follows a Poisson distribution with a mean of 6 pits per cm2. Let X represent the
Bas_tet [7]

Answer:

P(X=2)=0.0446

Step-by-step explanation:

If X follows a Poisson distribution, the probability p to have x pits in 1 cm2 is calculated as:

p(x)=\frac{e^{-m}*m^x}{x!}

Where m is the mean of pits per cm2, so, replacing m by 6 pits per cm2, we get that the probability is equal to:

p(x)=\frac{e^{-6}*6^x}{x!}

Now, the probability P(x=2) that there are 2 pits in a 1 cm2 is calculated as:

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1 year ago
One of the assumptions underlying the theory of control charting is that successive plotted points are independent of one anothe
aksik [14]

Answer:

P(at least 1 wrong in 10) =0.5160

Step-by-step explanation:

Let A be the event  that there is a problem in the proces. Then the probability of problem with the process is P ( A) = 0.07

Let B be the event  that the process is without the problem. Then the probability of without problem is P ( B) = 0.93

Now we want to find the 10 successive points of event B. Since the events are independent we can find this as

P(B)+P(B)+P(B)+P(B)+P(B)+P(B)+P(B)+P(B)+P(B)+P(B)

or

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As we have to calculate at least 1 in 10 then we will subtract it from 1.

P(at least 1 wrong in 10) = = 1 - .93^10 =1- 0.48398=0.5160

4 0
1 year ago
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