Answer: The answer is No, because the MB > MC
Explanation:
They are not cleaning up enough because the MB>MC. Therefore, all other options which cut across - Yes, because the MC > MB,
No, because the MB > MC,
Yes, because the MB > MC and
No, because the MC > MB are wrong.
Answer:
$4,372.71
Explanation:
Here for reaching the difference in PV between the first and the second offer first we need to follow some steps which is shown below:-
Step 1
Total payment due = Per tire × Bought tires
= $80 × 600
= $48,000
Step 2
Present value factor of 8.4% for 1 year = 1 ÷ (1 + Rate of interest)^Number of years
= 1 ÷ (1 + 8.4%)^1
= 1 ÷ (1 + 0.084)^1
= 1 ÷ 1.084
= 0.92251
Step 3
First offer
Present value = Total payment due × Present value factor of 8.4% for 1 year
= $48,000 × 0.92251
= $44,280.48
Step 4
Second offer
One year payment = Bought tires × Per tire
= 600 × $45
= $27,000
Step 5
Present value = One year payment × Present value factor of 8.4% for 1 year
= 27,000 × 0.92251
= $24,907.77
Step 6
Total present value = Present value of second offer + Tires cost
= $24,907.77 + $15,000
= $39,907.77
Here we can see that first offer is higher than second offer
So,
The difference between the first and the second offer = First offer - Second offer
= $44,280.48 - $39,907.77
= $4,372.71
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following images.
Explanation
Please consider the data provided by the exercise. If you have any question please write me back. All the exercises are solved in 2 sheets with the formulas indications.
Answer: b. Permissible if the Notary Signing Agent has the breakdown of the fees
Choices are:
“A. prohibited under all circumstances, regardless of the Notary Signing Agent’s level of expertise”
“B. permissible if the Notary Signing Agent has the breakdown of the fees”
“C. recommended in order to convince the borrower he or she is getting a fairly priced best loan”
“D. encouraged in order to provide superior customer service to the borrower”
The notary is allowed to explain the fees that make up the Annual Percentage Rate (APR) of a borrower’s loan but he is not allowed to comment on its source, its accuracy, or his opinion of the information.
Answer:
B. $304,060
Explanation:
We know that
Ending balance of finished goods inventory = Beginning balance of finished goods inventory + Cost of Goods manufactured - Cost of Goods Sold
= $304,560 + $290,500 - $291,000
= $304,060
We simply applied the above formula to compute the ending balance of finished goods inventory by considering the beginning balance of finished goods inventory, cost of goods manufacture and cost of goods sold.
