The correct answer would be option D, India has high import tariffs.
Mark feels that Darren is too optimistic and that this venture may not turn out to be as profitable as Darren expects it to be. Darren's view is based on the assumption that India has high import tariffs.
Explanation:
When companies import or export products in or out of the country, they are usually charged with a duty which they have to pay on the import or export of the products. This is called as the Tariff.
While considering the export of a product to another country, the import tariffs of that other country has a pretty much impact on the profits of that company's Sales. Higher the tariffs, lower the profits and vice versa.
So when Mark wanted to export his product to India, Darren was with the view that India has high import tariffs which will restrict them to have huge profits of exporting their product.
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Answer:
FV= $240.08
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Sue now has $125.
Number of periods= 8 years
Interest rate= 8.5% with annual compounding
<u>To calculate the future value of the investment, we need to use the following formula:</u>
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
FV= 125*(1.085)^8
FV= $240.08
Answer:
Number of units which company plan to produce in February is 352000
Explanation:
We have given expected sales in January, February and march is 440000, 390000 and 380000 units respectively
And desired needing finished goods in inventory in January, February and march is 39000, 38000 and 40000 units respectively
We have to find the how many units company plans to producing for month February
Number of units which company plan to produce in February = 390000 - 38000 = 352000
Answer:
$1.49 per share
Explanation:
The calculation of diluted earnings per share is given below:-
Diluted shares outstanding= $200,000 + 12,000 × ($36 - $30) ÷ 36
= $200,000 + 12,000 × 6 ÷ 36
= $200,000 + 2,000
= $202,000
Diluted earnings per share = Net income ÷ Diluted shares outstanding
= $300,000 ÷ $202,000
= $1.49 per share
Therefore for computing the diluted earnings per share we simply divide the net income by diluted shares outstanding.
Answer:
The spread between yields on long-term and short-term bonds is positive
Explanation:
When term premiums are positive, the yield curve is considered normal, this means that long-term bonds have a higher yield to maturity than short-term bonds, due to the higher risks associated with long-term bonds.
If long-term bonds have a higher yield to maturity (YTM) than short-term bonds, this means that the spread: the difference between the term premiums of long-term bonds and short-term bonds, will be positive.
For example, if the YTM of a 10 year bond is 8%, and the YTM of a 1 year bond is 4%, the spread of of the term premiums will:
8 - 4 = 4%, a positive spread.