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Katena32 [7]
2 years ago
13

Why does a more participative management style ("tipping the pyramid over") lead to greater responsiveness to customers’ needs,

increased accountability, and more innovative solutions to challenges than a hierarchical "command and control" structure? What particular factors do you believe led UGG/AU to be pioneers in ERM? Was it industry/company/history/circumstances? Was it a changed organizational "culture"? Was it good management?
Business
2 answers:
34kurt2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

For example, for inclusive companies, including people with a certain disability is successful to the extent that a change in company culture is achieved. The most complicated obstacles to hiring people with a certain disability are in the myths and barriers that have been raised regarding what has to do with disability.

Explanation:

The hiring of people with disabilities is a step towards breaking down myths and barriers. This must be followed by a systematic step of training and sensitization of all company personnel. Everyone's participation in the different phases of the inclusion process is essential. Said participation must produce as a result of direct executive direction, coming from the highest levels of the company, but generated as the product of training, conviction and awareness.

suter [353]2 years ago
4 0

Inclusive and participatory management practices are the most effective in today's society. The indices show that companies that adopt this style of management achieve continuous improvements throughout the organizational process. Organizational culture focused on employee well-being ensures a positive culture and this influences them to do their job more effectively. It also increases security, pride in being part of that company, and values.

You might be interested in
At the beginning of the year, Brick Makers had cash of $183, accounts receivable of $392, accounts payable of $463, and inventor
Pie

Answer:

amount of the net source $15

Explanation:Working\ capital= Current\ assets-Current\ liabilities

source\ of\ cash =[Cash+AR+Inventory]- [Amount\ Payable]

cash = $183

received amount = $392

inventory =$714

payable amounts =$463

current assest = (183+392+714)-463=$826

current liabilities =(167+682+409-447)=$811

cash = $167

received amount = $409

inventory =$682

payable amounts =$447

current liabilities =(167+682+409-447)=$811

Hence since current liabilities is more than current assests, therefore there will be loss of accounts

Hence source of cash= (826-811) = $15.

7 0
2 years ago
Last year, Tinklenberg Corporation's variable costing net operating income was $52,400 and its inventory decreased by 1,400 unit
Cloud [144]

Answer:

the absorption costing net operating income last year is  $41,200

Explanation:

Absorption Costing Net Operating Income for last year is determined by reconciling the Variable Costing Income to Absorption Costing Income.

<u>Calculation of Absorption Costing Net Operating Income</u>

Variable Costing Income                                             $52,400

<em>Less</em> Decrease in Inventory ( 1,400 × $8)                   ($11,200)  

Absorption Costing Net Operating Income               $41,200

Absorption Costing Net Operating Income will be <em>lower than </em>Variable Costing Income.

3 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
Tim spends his income on donuts (D) and coffee (C). Coffee is $2 per cup and donuts are $1 each. Assume that Tim has $10 to spen
stealth61 [152]

Answer:

Optimal number of donuts = 5 Donuts

Optimal cups of coffee = 2.5 cups.

Explanation:

Optimal numbers of donuts and coffee can be calculated as follow

First, we need to determine the budget constraint as below

M = ( P(D) x D ) + ( P(C) x C )

Placig values in the formula

10 = D + 2C

Now make utility function as:

U(D,C) = D0.5 C0.5

Marginal Utility donuts

MU(D) = 0.5D-0.5C0.5

Marginal Utility Coffee

MU(C) = 0.5D0.5C-0.5

The formula for marginal rate of substitution

(MRSD,C)= MU(D) / MU(C)  = 0.5D - 0.5C0.5 / 0.5D0.5C - 0.5  = C/D

Now calculate the optimal consumption level  

MRSD,C = P(D) / P(C)

C/D = 1/2

D = 2C (Equation 1 )

Placing the value of D resulted from equation 1, in the budget constraint we as below

10 = D + 2C

10 = 2C + 2C

10 = 4C

C = 10/4 = 2.5

NOw place the value of C in equation 1

D = 2C = 2(2.5) = 5

Optimal number of donuts = 5 Donuts

Optimal cups of coffee = 2.5 cups.

7 0
1 year ago
The University of Chicago Press is wholly owned by the university. It performs the bulk of its work for other university departm
Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer:

please find the answer below

Explanation:

The University of Chicago

a job costing system involves the process of accumulating information about the costs associated with a specific production or service job service. This information may be required in order to submit the cost information to a customer under a contract where costs are reimbursed.

This involves the accumulation of the costs of materials, labor, and overheads for a specific job.

How to calculate job costing:

Total job cost= direct materials + direct labor + applied overhead

Calculate labor costs:

Determine how much it cost your organization to hire all workers who will work on the project. Multiple the pay per day rate by the number of workers you have estimate to have.

Calculate material costs:

Calculate the cost of all materials that will be used on the job.

Estimate applied overhead:

This is the most difficult to determine, you will need to determine the total overhead costs factoring into the project. This will include your rental expense for the office as well as administrative costs and depreciation of all equipment used.

1. Overview diagram

Indirect Cost Pool    

       

   Cost allocation base  

   Cost Objects: Print jobs  

     

     Direct tracing  

2. Materials Inventory Control    800

Accounts Payable Control       800  

To record purchase of direct materials & supplies

Work-in-Process Inventory Control   710  

Manufacturing Overhead Control   100  

Materials Inventory Control      810

To record direct materials and supplies used

Work-in-Process Inventory Control   1,300

Manufacturing Overhead Control   900  

Wages Payable        2,200  

To record manufacturing labor

Manufacturing Overhead Control   400  

Accumulated Depreciation – Building     400

 and Manufacturing Equipment

To record depreciation of building and manufacturing equipment

Manufacturing Overhead Control   550  

miscellaneous accounts       550  

To record miscellaneous factory overhead

Work-in-Process Inventory Control   2,080  

Applied Manufacturing Overhead      2,080

To assign manufacturing overhead to WIP based on DML dollars

Finished Goods Inventory Control   4,120  

Work-in-Process Inventory Control     4,120  

To record the cost of goods manufactured

Accounts Receivable Control or Cash   8,000  

Sales Revenues        8,000  

To record sales revenue  

Cost of Goods Sold    4,020

Finished Goods Inventory Control     4,020  

To record the costs of the goods sold ($1,300X 160%)

3. T-Accounts:

DIRECT MATERIALS

OPENING BALANCE $100  WORK-IN-PROCESS $710

CASH    $800  

   

WOR-IN-PROCESS

OPENING BALNCE $60  FINISHED GOODS  $4, 120

DIRECT MATERIALS  $710  CLOSING BALANCE  $30

APPLIED MANUFACT- $2, 080

URING OVERHEAD

MAUFACTURING O/H $1, 300        

  $4, 150     $4, 150

FINISHED GOODS

OPENING BALANCE $500  COST OF GOODS SOLD $4, 020

WORK-IN-PROCESS $4, 120  CLOSING BALANCE  $600

  $4, 620     $4, 620

  COST OF GOODS SOLD

FINISHED GOODS $4, 020   PROFIT/LOSS  $4, 020

  MANUFACTURING OVERHHEADS

INVENTORY CONTROL $710   WOR-IN-PROCESS $2, 560

WAGES PAYABLE  $900

ACCUMULATED  $400

DEPRECIATION  

MISCELLANEOUS $550

ACCOUNTS  

  $2, 560       $2, 560

7 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose that Ford issues a coupon bonds at a price of $1,000, which is the same as the bond's par value. Assume the bond has a c
uysha [10]

Answer:

YTM approximated 4.08%

Explanation:

If the price of the bond changes to 1,060

we will need to calcualte the YTM

we could do it with an approxmation method like this:

YTM = \frac{C + \frac{F-P}{n }}{\frac{F+P}{2}}

Cuopon payment =1,000 x 4.5% = 45

Face value       = 1,000

Purchase value= 1,060

n= 20 years

quotient 4.0776699%

It will yield approximately 4.08%

3 0
1 year ago
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