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Romashka-Z-Leto [24]
2 years ago
13

4. Eric has $4,800 that he wants to invest for 4 years. He can invest this amount at his credit union and earn 4 percent simple

interest. Or, he can open an account at Compass Bank and earn 3.65 percent interest, compounded annually. If he decides to invest at Copmpass Bank for 4 years, he will:
Mathematics
1 answer:
NISA [10]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

See explanation below

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to do this, we just need to calculate the amount of money he'll get after the 4 years, with a simple interest and with the compound anually.

First, let's get the index variation:

4/100 = 0.04 + 1 = 1.04

The amount he will get after the 4 years will be:

P = 4800 * 1.04 * 4 = 19968 $

The interest that the credit union pays will be:

19968 - (4800*4) = 768$

Now as he decides to compound anually, let's get the index variation:

3.65/100 = 0.0365 + 1 = 1.0365

The amount he will get:

P = 4800 * (1.0365)^4 = 5540$

The interest that the bank will pay is:

5540 - 4800 = 740$

Therefore we can conclude that, as Eric decided to invest in the bank, by the end of the 4 years, he will have 28$ less, that if he were decided to invest in the credit union.

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Problem 2.2.4 Your Starburst candy has 12 pieces, three pieces of each of four flavors: berry, lemon, orange, and cherry, arrang
kkurt [141]

Answer:

a) P=0

b) P=0.164

c) P=0.145

Step-by-step explanation:

We have 12 pieces, with 3 of each of the 4 flavors.

You draw the first 4 pieces.

a) The probability of getting all of the same flavor is 0, because there are only 3 pieces of each flavor. Once you get the 3 of the same flavor, there are only the other flavors remaining.

b) The probability of all 4 being from different flavor can be calculated as the multiplication of 4 probabilities.

The first probability is for the first draw, and has a value of 1, as any flavor will be ok.

The second probability corresponds to drawing the second candy and getting a different flavor. There are 2 pieces of the flavor from draw 1, and 9 from the other flavors, so this probability is 9/(9+2)=9/11≈0.82.

The third probability is getting in the third draw a different flavor from the previos two draws. We have left 10 candys and 4 are from the flavor we already picked. Then the third probabilty is 6/10=0.6.

The fourth probability is getting the last flavor. There are 9 candies left and only 3 are of the flavor that hasn't been picked yet. Then, the probability is 3/9=0.33.

Then, the probabilty of picking the 4 from different flavors is:

P=1\cdot\dfrac{9}{11}\cdot\dfrac{6}{10}\cdot\dfrac{3}{9}=\dfrac{162}{990}\approx0.164

c) We can repeat the method for the previous probabilty.

The first draw has a probability of 1 because any flavor is ok.

In the second draw, we may get the same flavor, with probability 2/11, or we can get a second flavor with probability 9/11. These two branches are ok.

For the third draw, if we have gotten 2 of the same flavor (P=2/11), we have to get a different flavor (we can not have 3 of the same flavor). This happen with probability 9/10.

If we have gotten two diffente flavors, there are left 4 candies of the picked flavors in the remaining 10 candies, so we have a probabilty of 4/10.

For the fourth draw, independently of the three draws, there are only 2 candies left that satisfy the condition, so we have a probability of 2/9.

For the first path, where we pick 2 candies of the same flavor first and 2 candies of the same flavor last, we have two versions, one for each flavor, so we multiply this probability by a factor of 2.

We have then the probabilty as:

P=2\cdot\left(1\cdot\dfrac{2}{11}\right)\cdot\left(\dfrac{9}{10}\cdot\dfrac{2}{9}\right)+\left(1\cdot\dfrac{9}{11}\cdot\dfrac{4}{10}\cdot\dfrac{2}{9}\right)\\\\\\P=2\cdot\dfrac{36}{990}+\dfrac{72}{990}=\dfrac{144}{990}\approx0.145

5 0
2 years ago
The latest poll of 400 randomly selected residents showed that 288 of them are hoping that the old town cinema stays open on Mai
Varvara68 [4.7K]
The approximate margin of error is 4%.

Using the formula given and our information, we have:

E=1.96\times \sqrt{\frac{\frac{288}{400}(1-\frac{288}{400})}{400}}
\\
\\=1.96\times \sqrt{\frac{0.72(1-0.72)}{400}}=1.96\times \sqrt{\frac{0.72(0.28)}{400}}
\\
\\=0.044\approx 0.04=4%
8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the value of x when y=10 in the equation y=4x-2
Viefleur [7K]
Substitute y for 10 in the equation and solve using these steps:
10=4x+2
1) Minus 2 from both sides
8=4x
2) Divide both sides by 4 (the coefficient of x)
2=x
The value of x is 2 and we can check this by substituting it back into the original equation, 10 = (4×2)+2.
3 0
2 years ago
Jean spent $16 on new T-shirts. If each shirt cost the same whole-dollar amount, how many could she have bought?
Kaylis [27]
Well $16 times 16 would be $256.
If each shirt costs $1 then she could buy 16 shirts.
4 0
2 years ago
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From a height of 50 meters above sea level on a cliff, two ships are sighted due west. The angles of depression are 61° and 28°.
Olenka [21]

Answer:

The ships are 66 meters apart.

Step-by-step explanation:

For the sake of convenience, let us label ships A and B

As shown in the figure, the distances to the ships from right triangles.

The distance to the ship A is d_1 and it is given by

tan (61^o)= \dfrac{50}{d_1}

d_1=\dfrac{50}{tan (61^o)}

\boxed{d_1= 27.71m}

And the distance to the ship B is d_2 and is given by

tan (28^o)= \dfrac{50}{d_2}

d_2=\dfrac{50}{tan (28^o)}

\boxed{ d_2=94.04m}

Therefore, the distance d between the ships A and B is

d= d_2-d_1=94.04-27.7\\\\\boxed{d=66m}

In other words, the ships are 66 meters apart.

8 0
2 years ago
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