Answer:
1/3
Step-by-step explanation:
Lets start with the red ball because it is easier. You have 1/10 chances to pick the same number that is drawn randomly. Thus your base probability is .1
Now going to the white balls, you need atleast 2 numbers picked as the numbers drawn. Let's say we pick numbers 1-3. In order to win, the numbers 1 and 2, 2 and 3, 1 and 3, or 1 2 and 3 must be drawn. You can calculate the probability for each of these cases. In the case only 2 are drawn, the probability for each is 0.075. Since there are three cases that this could happen, you multiply this probability by 3, becoming 1/4. However, there is also the chance that you get all three. The probability of this is 3/10*2/9*1/8.
.225 + .1 + 0.008333 = 33.333...% or 1/3
Okay add 78 and 66. Then add 96 and 108. It should be 144 by 204. I know math is hard, but when you work at it you can do amazing things! I hope that helps you.
Answer:
A. (3, 10)
Step-by-step explanation:
You are told that ...
(x, y) = (number of accessories, dollars)
and you are told that ...
number of accessories = 3
dollars = 10
so the ordered pair is ...
(x, y) = (3, 10) . . . . Point A
Answer:
nixgaa
Step-by-step explanation:
brih
<span>Since Sturge's Rule states that the optimal number of bins is equal to the 1 plus 3.3 log(n), where n is the number of data points, the estimated solution (since you can only have whole bins) is to provide 6 bins, each storing 42 to 43 data points.</span>
