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zheka24 [161]
2 years ago
7

The blue M&M was introduced in 1995. Before then, the color mix in a bag of plain M&Ms was (30% Brown, 20% Yellow, 20% R

ed, 10% Green, 10% Orange, 10% Tan). Afterward it was (24% Blue , 20% Green, 16% Orange, 14% Yellow, 13% Red, 13% Brown). A friend of mine has two bags of M&Ms, and he tells me that one is from 1994 and one from 1996. He won't tell me which is which, but he gives me one M&M from each bag. One is yellow and one is green. What is the probability that the yellow M&M came from the 1994 bag?
Mathematics
1 answer:
IRISSAK [1]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The probability that the yellow M&M came from the 1994 bag is 0.07407 or 7.407%

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Before 1995

(Br) Brown = 30%

(Y) Yellow = 20%  =0.2

(R) Red = 20%

(G) Green =10%  =0.1

(O) Orange = 10%

(T) Tan = 10%

 

After 1995

(Br) Brown = 13%

(Y) Yellow = 14%  =0.14

(R) Red = 13%

(G) Green = 20% = 0.2

(O) Orange = 16%

(Bl) Blue = 24%

Since there are two bags, let A be the bag from 1994, and B be the bag from 1996

Then let AY imply we drew a yellow M&M from the 1994 bag

AG implies we drew a green M&M from the 1994 bag

BY implies imply we drew a yellow M&M from the 1996 bag

BG implies we drew a green M&M from the 1996 bag

P(AY) =0.2

P (BY) = 0.14

P(AG) =0.1

P(BG) =0.2

Since the draws from the 1994 and 1996 bag are independent,

therefore

P(AY n BG) = 0.2 * 0.2 = 0.04  -------(1)\\P(AG n BY) =0.1 * 0.14 =0.014   --------(2)\\

The draws can happen in either of the 2 ways in (1) and (2) above

therefore total probability E is given as

E =P( AY n BG) u P(AG n BY)\\=0.04 + 0.014 =0.O54

For the yellow one to be from 1994, it implies that the event to be chosen is

P(AYnBG) = 0.2*0.2

Since the total probability is given as E=0.054

then P((AYnBG) /E) =\frac{0.04}{0.054} = 0.07407

Concluding statement: This is the condition for the Yellow one to come from 1994 and green from 1996 provided that they obey the condition from E

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terrence made a sphere out of modeling clay. the sphere had a radius of 2 inches. approximately how much modeling clay did terre
navik [9.2K]

Amount of clay used = volume of the sphere

It is given that the radius of the sphere is 2 inches.

Volume of the sphere = \frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}

=\frac{4}{3} \pi (2^{3} )

=\frac{4}{3} \pi (8)

=\frac{32}{3} \pi

Hence, the amount of modeling clay Terrence used =\frac{32}{3} \pi cubic inches.


5 0
2 years ago
Company F sells fabrics known as fat quarters, which are rectangles of fabric created by cutting a yard of fabric into four piec
jeka94

Answer:

a) Y 0 1 2

P(Y) 0.58 0.23 0.11

b) mean= 0.45, S.D= 0.6718

c) mean= 1.285, S.D= 8.74

Step-by-step explanation:

a) The following table shows the probability distribution of X:

X 0 1 2 3 4 or more

P(X) 0.58 0.23 0.11 0.05 0.03

Defect >2 = cannot be sold

Y = the number of defects on a fat quarter that can be sold by Company F.

Y = defect that can be sold

Y = Defect less or equal to 2 = 0,1,2

Probability distribution of the random variable Y:

Y 0 1 2

P(Y) 0.58 0.23 0.11

b) mean of Y (μ)

μ = Σ x*P(Y)

= (0*0.58) +(1*0.23)+(2*0.11)

= 0+0.23+0.22 = 0.45

Standard deviation of Y = σ

σ = Σ√(x-mean)^2*P(Y)

= Σ√[(x- μ )^2*P(Y)]

= √[(0-0.45)^2*0.58+ (1-0.45)^2*0.23 + (2-0.45)^2*0.11]

= √[0.11745 + 0.069575 +0.264275

= √(0.4513

σ = 0.6718

Company G:

σ for defect that be sold = 0.66

μ for defect that be sold = 0.40

Difference between μ of F and μ of G

= 0.45-0.40 = 0.05

Difference between σ of F and σ of G

= 0.67-0.66 = 0.01

Selling price of fat quarter without defect = $5

Discount per defect = $1.5

Selling price per defect = 5-1.5 = $3.5

Discount per 2 defect = $1.5*2 = $3

Selling price per defect = 5-3 = $2

Since defect to be sold cannot be greater than 2, let Y = 5,3,2

Probability distribution of the selling price Y:

Y 5 3 2

P(Y) 0.58 0.23 0.11

μ = (5*0.58) +(3.5*0.23)+(2*0.11)

μ = 2.9+0.805+0.22 =1.285

σ = Σ√[(x- μ )^2*P(Y)]

σ = √[(5-1.285)^2*0.58+ (3-1.285)^2*0.23 + (2-1.285)^2*0.11]

σ = 8.00+0.68+0.06 = 8.74

7 0
2 years ago
Given triangle GHJ, the measure of angle G equals 110°, the measure of angle J equals 40°, and the measure of angle H equals 30°
tester [92]

Answer:

Since angle G is  

✔ the largest

 angle, the opposite side, JH, is  

✔ the longest side

. The order of the side lengths from longest to shortest is  

✔ HJ, GH, and GJ

.

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
Supervisor: "Last week, you spoke with 800 customers in 40 hours."
algol13

Answer:12

Step-by-step explanation:

0 0
2 years ago
Meeting at least one person with the flu in thirteen random encounters on campus when the infection rate is 2% (2 in 100 people
s344n2d4d5 [400]

Answer:

23.1% probability of meeting at least one person with the flu

Step-by-step explanation:

For each encounter, there are only two possible outcomes. Either the person has the flu, or the person does not. The probability of a person having the flu is independent of any other person. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

Infection rate of 2%

This means that p = 0.02

Thirteen random encounters

This means that n = 13

Probability of meeting at least one person with the flu

Either you meet none, or you meet at least one. The sum of the probabilities of these outcomes is 1. So

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

We want P(X \geq 1). Then

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{13,0}.(0.02)^{0}.(0.98)^{13} = 0.7690

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.769 = 0.231

23.1% probability of meeting at least one person with the flu

6 0
2 years ago
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