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arsen [322]
2 years ago
5

The oscilloscope can be thought of as a plotting machine. What is plotted on the a axis? What is plotted on the y axis? If you t

ry to look at a 6 volt signal with the "volts/div" dial set on 0.2 you don't see anything. Why not? Should you turn the dial to 2 volts/div or to 0.02 volts/div to find the signal?
Physics
1 answer:
Feliz [49]2 years ago
5 0

Answer: The oscilloscope is not a plotting machine.

Explanation: The Oscilloscope is not a plotting machine is a device which is use to measure the frequency,period, peak to peak Voltage Vpp or any signal. That is alternating.

So, if you're such you wired your circuit whose output signal you want to measure very well and all connections and settings are done accurately, then you can reduce the volt/div below 0.2. You not seeing any signal at 0.2v/div shows that the amplitude of the signal coming into the Oscilloscope is not up to that.

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An ice hockey puck is tied by a string to a stake in the ice. the puck is then swung in a circle. what force is producing the ce
Taya2010 [7]
In a circular motion scenario, the force that pulls the revolving object towards the centre is the force that produces the centripetal acceleration. So, in this case, the tension on the string is the force that pulls the puck towards the centre.

Therefore, it is the tension in the string that causes the centripetal acceleration of the puck

Hope I helped!! xx
8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A 6.60-kg block slides with an initial speed of 1.56 m/s up a ramp inclined at an angle of 28.4° with the horizontal. The coeffi
Vlad [161]

Answer:

The distance travel by block before coming to rest is 0.122 m

Explanation:

Given:

Mass of block m = 6.60 kg

Initial speed of block v _{i} = 1.56 \frac{m}{s}

Final speed of block v_{f} = 0 \frac{m}{s}

Coefficient of kinetic friction \mu _{k} = 0.62

Ramp inclined at angle \theta = 28.4°

Using conservation of energy,

Work done by frictional force is equal to change in energy,

  \mu _{k} mgd \cos 28.4 =  \Delta K - \Delta U

Where \Delta U = mg d\sin 28.4

\mu _{k} mgd \cos 28.4 =  \frac{1}{2}mv_{i} ^{2} - mgd\sin 28.4

\mu _{k} mgd \cos 28.4 +mgd\sin 28.4  =  \frac{1}{2}mv_{i} ^{2}

d(6.60 \times 9.8 \times 0.62 \times 0.879 + 6.60 \times 9.8 \times 0.475) = \frac{1}{2} \times 6.60 \times (1.56)^{2}

 d = 0.122 m

Therefore, the distance travel by block before coming to rest is 0.122 m

7 0
2 years ago
A student, along with her backpack on the floor next to her, are in an elevator that is accelerating upward with acceleration a.
Anna007 [38]

Answer:

\mu_k = \frac{2(vt - L)}{(g + a) t^2}

Explanation:

As we know that backpack is kicked on the rough floor with speed "v"

So here as per force equation in vertical direction we know that

N - mg = ma

so normal force on the block is given as

N = mg + ma

now the magnitude of kinetic friction on the block is given as

F_f = \mu N

F_f = \mu (mg + ma)

now when bag is sliding on the floor then net deceleration of the block due to friction is given as

a = - \frac{F_f}{m}

a = -\mu_k(g + a)

now we know that bag hits the opposite wall at L distance away in time t

so we have

d = v t + \frac{1}{2}at^2

L = vt - \frac{1}{2}(\mu_k)(g + a) t^2

\mu_k = \frac{2(vt - L)}{(g + a) t^2}

8 0
1 year ago
Suppose you are talking by interplanetary telephone to your friend, who lives on the Moon. He tells you that he has just won a n
Savatey [412]

Answer:

The friend on moon will be richer.

Explanation:

We must calculate the mass of gold won by each person, to tell who is richer. For that purpose we will use the following formula:

W = mg

m = W/g

where,

m = mass of gold

W = weight of gold

g = acceleration due to gravity on that planet

<u>FOR FRIEND ON MOON</u>:

W = 1 N

g = 1.625 m/s²

Therefore,

m = (1 N)/(1.625 m/s²)

m(moon) = 0.6 kg

<u>FOR ME ON EARTH</u>:

W = 1 N

g = 9.8 m/s²

Therefore,

m = (1 N)/(9.8 m/s²)

m(earth) = 0.1 kg

Since, the mass of gold on moon is greater than the mass of moon on earth.

<u>Therefore, the friend on moon will be richer.</u>

7 0
2 years ago
By standard convention, both the electric potential and the the electric potential energy between two charges is taken to be zer
shusha [124]

Answer: at when distance r = infinity.

Explanation: The formulae for the electric potential of an electric charge to an arbitrary point is given by the formulae below

V = q/4πεr

V = electric potential (volts)

q = magnitude of electric charge

ε = permittivity of free space

r = distance between arbitrary point and charge.

In the equation above, it can be seen that only electric potential (v) and distance (r) is a variable, and there is an inverse relationship between them (an increase in one leads to a decrease in the other)

Thus to have zero value of electric potential (v= 0) we have to have the largest value of r ( r = infinity).

Same goes for electric potential energy between two charges, the formulae is given below as

W = q1 *q2/4πεr

W= electric potential energy

q1 = magnitude of first charge.

q2 = magnitude of second charge

ε = permittivity of free space

r = distance between arbitrary point and charge.

Also, all values are constant aside from electric potential energy (w) and distance (r) which have an inverse relationship.

Thus to have zero value of electric potential energy (w =0), we have to get an infinite value of distance ( r =infinity)

6 0
2 years ago
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