Answer:
0.60
Step-by-step explanation:
Use binomial probability.
P = nCr pʳ qⁿ⁻ʳ
where n is the number of trials,
r is the number of successes,
p is the probability of success,
and q is the probability of failure (1−p).
The probability of a mistake on at least one page is 1 minus the probability of making no mistakes.
P(at least 1) = 1 − P(none)
P = 1 − ₁₁C₀ (0.08)⁰ (0.92)¹¹⁻⁰
P = 1 − (0.92)¹¹
P = 0.60
The future worth (F) of the current investment (P) that has an interest (i) that is compounded annually is calculated through,
F = P x (1 + i)^n
where n is the number of compounding period. Substituting the given values,
F = ($2,400) x ( 1+ 0.02)^7 = $2,756.85
Thus, the future worth is approximately $2,756.85. The answer is the second choice.
Answer:
26 days
Step-by-step explanation:
If 6 days = rs. 2130
then 1 day = (2130 × 1) ÷ 6
Therefore 1 day = rs 355
For rs. 9230, the number of days he worked:
= 9230 ÷ 355
= 26 days
Answer: 80
Step-by-step explanation: Please see attachment for explanation
