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Finger [1]
2 years ago
6

Research vessels at sea can create images of their surroundings by sending out sound waves and measuring the time until they det

ect echoes. This image of a shipwreck on the ocean bottom was made from the surface with 600 kHz ultrasound.
a. What was the wavelength?
b. How deep is the shipwreck if echoes were detected 0.42 s after the sound waves were emitted?
Physics
1 answer:
Nonamiya [84]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a) \lambda = \frac{1480 m/s}{600000 Hz}= 0.00246 m * \frac{1000 mm}{1m}= 2.47 mm

b) 2d = v t

If we solve for d we got:

d = \frac{vt}{2}

And we can replace the values given and we got:

d = \frac{1480 m/s*0.42s}{2}=310.8 m

Explanation:

Part a

For this case if we have a fundamental wave we need to satisfy the following relationship:

v = \lambda f

If we solve for the wavelength we got:

\lambda = \frac{v}{f}

We know that the velocity of the sound in water is different from air and is approximately 1480 m/s.

We can convert the frequency given into Hz like this:

f= 600 kHz *\frac{1000 Hz}{1 kHz}= 600000 Hz

And now if we find the wavelength we got:

\lambda = \frac{1480 m/s}{600000 Hz}= 0.00246 m * \frac{1000 mm}{1m}= 2.47 mm

Part b

For this case the time given t =0.42 seconds represent the time required in order to the wave go and return to the device. So the total distance would be 2d, where d represent the depth.

We know that from kinematics:

D = vt

Where D is the distance, v the velocity and t the time. If we use this relation we have:

2d = v t

If we solve for d we got:

d = \frac{vt}{2}

And we can replace the values given and we got:

d = \frac{1480 m/s*0.42s}{2}=310.8 m

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A record is dropped vertically onto a freely rotating (undriven) turntable. Frictional forces act to bring the record and turnta
BartSMP [9]

Answer:

35%

Explanation:

Assuming no external torques present during the collision between the record and the turntable, total angular momentum must be conserved.

For a rotating body with some angular velocity and moment of inertia, the angular momentum can be expressed as follows;

L = I* ω

So, as initial angular momentum and final angular momentum must be the same, we have:

Li = Lf

⇒ I₁ * ω₁ = I₂ * ω₂ (1)

where I₁ is the rotational inertia of the turntable, and I₂, is the combined rotational inertia of the turntable and the record:

I₂ = I₁ + 0.54 I₁ = 1.54 I₁

We can solve (1) for the new common angular speed, as follows:

ω₂ = ω₁ / 1.54 (2)

The initial rotational kinetic energy is given by definition for the following equation:

Kroti = 1/2 * I₁ * ω₁² (3)

The final rotational kinetic  energy takes into account the new rotational inertia and the common final angular speed:

Krotf = 1/2* I₂ * ω₂² = 1/2* 1.54 I₁* (ω₁/1.54)² (4)

Dividing both sides in (3) and (4), we get:

Krotf/Kroti = 1/1.54 = 0.65

This means that the final rotational kinetic energy, has reduced to 0.65 of the initial value, or that has lost 35% of the initial kinetic energy.

8 0
2 years ago
A point charge Q = -400 nC and two unknown point charges, q1 and q2, are placed as shown. Point charge q1 is located 1.3 meters
nalin [4]
120 nC is the answer




Sorry if I’m wrong
6 0
2 years ago
An electron and a proton are held on an x axis, with the electron at x = + 1.000 m and the proton at x = - 1.000 m.how much work
aksik [14]
It is required an infinite work. The additional electron will never reach the origin.

In fact, assuming the additional electron is coming from the positive direction, as it approaches x=+1.00 m it will become closer and closer to the electron located at x=+1.00 m. However, the electrostatic force between the two electrons (which is repulsive) will become infinite when the second electron reaches x=+1.00 m, because the distance d between the two electrons is zero:
F=k_e  \frac{q_e q_e}{d^2}
So, in order for the additional electron to cross this point, it is required an infinite amount of work, which is impossible.
5 0
2 years ago
A 50-n crate sits on a horizontal floor where the coefficient of static friction between the crate and the floor is 0.50 . A 20-
andreyandreev [35.5K]

The resultant static friction force is equal to 20 N to the left.

Why?

I'm assuming that you forgot to write the question of the exercise, so,  I will try to complete it:

"A 50-n crate sits on a horizontal floor where the coefficient of static friction between the crate and the floor is 0.50 . A 20-n force is applied to the crate acting to the right. What is the resulting static friction force acting on the crate?"

So, if we are going to calculate the resulting static friction force, it means that there is no movement, we must remember that the friction coefficient will give us the maximum force before the crate starts to move.

We can calculate the static friction force by using the following formula:

Fr=F(appliedforce)

Since the crate is not moving (static), the static friction force acting on the crate will be equal to the applied force.

Calculating we have:

Fr=F(appliedforce)

Fr=20N

Hence, the static friction force is equal to 20 N to the left (since the applied force is acting to the right)

So,

FrictionForce=AppliedForce

Since the static friction force is equal to the applied force, the crate does not start to move.

Have a nice day!

8 0
2 years ago
For the Texas Department of Public Safety, you are investigating an accident that occurred early on a foggy morning in a remote
Bad White [126]

Answer:

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ExpJERlanation:

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