Answer:
$600 unfavorable
Explanation:
The budgeted cost of producing 14,000 units at $5.50 per unit and with fixed costs of $19,400 is:
The variance is given by subtracting the budgeted cost by the actual cost ($97,000):
Since the variance is negative, the variance is unfavorable
Answer:
The correct option is B: Gap 2
Explanation:
The gaps model of service quality, which is also referred to as the 5 gaps model is a vital framework used by organization to ensure customer satisfaction. The Gap 2 model is normally between the perception of the management and what the actual experience of the customer is. In the Gap 2, managers always ensure that organization are delivering and defining the level of quality service they need. From the question Fedex is dealing with actual customer-defined performance standards and this indicates that they are a closing provider of the gap 2 of the gaps model of service quality.
Answer:
a. 19,048
b. 2.1
c. $21
d. Before $2
After $2.1
e. Explanation of tax implication is below
Explanation:
a. Number of shares = Dividend per share × Number of shares outstanding ÷ cost per share
= 1 × 400,000 ÷ $21
= 19,048
b. Earning per share after repurchase = earnings ÷ (shares before-shares outstanding)
= $800,000 ÷ (400,000-19,048)
= 2.1
c. Market Price = Earning per share Price × Earning
= 2.1 × 10
= $21
d. Earning per share before = Earnings ÷ Before shares
= $800,000 ÷ 400,000
= $2
Earning per share after repurchase = $2.1
After share repurchase the earning per share has increased.
e) Price increased 21 dollars in share repurchased. The price remain constant in dividend payout the amount but additional 1 dollar in dividend the investors gains. If dividend is lesser than tax on capital gain then it will become drawback over collect dividend and vice versa.
Answer:
yield to maturity = 7.06%
Explanation:
yield to maturity (YTM) is calculated using the following formula:
YTM = {C + [(FV - PV) / n]} / [(FV + PV) / 2]
- FV = $2,000
- PV = $1,902.14
- C = $2,000 x 6.48% x 1/2 = $64.80
- n = 12 x 2 = 24
YTM = {64.80 + [(2,000 - 1,902.14) / 24]} / [(2,000 + 1,902.14) / 2] = (64.80 + 4.0775) / 1,951.07 = 0.0353 or 3.53% semianually or 7.06% annually
Since the bond sells at a discount, its yield to maturity will be higher than the coupon rate.
