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WARRIOR [948]
1 year ago
10

what is the acceleration of a bowling ball that starts at rest and moves 300m down the gutter in 22.4 sec

Physics
1 answer:
exis [7]1 year ago
7 0
<span>Acceleration is the change in velocity divided by time taken. It has both magnitude and direction. In this problem, the change in velocity would first have to be calculated. Velocity is distance divided by time. Therefore, the velocity here would be 300 m divided by 22.4 seconds. This gives a velocity of 13.3928 m/s. Since acceleration is velocity divided by time, it would be 13.3928 divided by 22.4, giving a final solution of 0.598 m/s^2.</span>
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You are working as an assistant to an air-traffic controller at the local airport, from which small airplanes take off and land.
Alika [10]

Answer:

d = 2021.6 km

Explanation:

We can solve this distance exercise with vectors, the easiest method s to find the components of the position of each plane and then use the Pythagorean theorem to find distance between them

Airplane 1

Height   y₁ = 800m

Angle θ = 25°

           cos 25 = x / r

           sin 25 = z / r

           x₁ = r cos 20

           z₁ = r sin 25

          x₁ = 18 103 cos 25 = 16,314 103 m = 16314 m

          z₁ = 18 103 sin 25 = 7,607 103 m= 7607 m

2 plane

Height   y₂ = 1100 m

Angle θ = 20°

          x₂ = 20 103 cos 25 = 18.126 103 m = 18126 m

          z₂ = 20 103 without 25 = 8.452 103 m = 8452 m

The distance between the planes using the Pythagorean Theorem is

         d² = (x₂-x₁)² + (y₂-y₁)² + (z₂-z₁)²2

Let's calculate

        d² = (18126-16314)²  + (1100-800)² + (8452-7607)²

        d² = 3,283 106 +9 104 + 7,140 105

        d² = (328.3 + 9 + 71.40) 10⁴

        d = √(408.7 10⁴)

        d = 20,216 10² m

        d = 2021.6 km

7 0
2 years ago
The U.S. Department of Energy had plans for a 1500-kg automobile to be powered completely by the rotational kinetic energy of a
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

230

Explanation:

\omega = Rotational speed = 3600 rad/s

I = Moment of inertia = 6 kgm²

m = Mass of flywheel = 1500 kg

v = Velocity = 15 m/s

The kinetic energy of flywheel is given by

K=\dfrac{1}{2}I\omega^2\\\Rightarrow K=\dfrac{1}{2}6\times 3600^2\\\Rightarrow K=38880000\ J

Energy used in one acceleration

K=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2\\\Rightarrow K=\dfrac{1}{2}1500\times 15^2\\\Rightarrow K=168750\ J

Number of accelerations would be given by

n=\dfrac{38880000}{168750}\\\Rightarrow n=230.4

So the number of complete accelerations is 230

8 0
2 years ago
A rectangular coil of dimensions 5.40cm x 8.50cm consists of25 turns of wire. The coil carries a current of 15.0 mA.
Kazeer [188]

Answer:

(a) Magnetic moment will be 17.212\times 10^{-4}A-m^2

(b) Torque will be 6.024\times 10^{-4}N-m

Explanation:

We have given dimension of the rectangular 5.4 cm × 8.5 cm

So area of the rectangular coil A=5.4\times 8.5=45.9cm^2=45.9\times 10^{-4}m^2

Current is given as i=15mA=15\times 10^{-3}A

Number of turns N = 25

(A) We know that magnetic moment is given by magnetic\ moment=NiA=25\times 45.9\times 10^{-4}\times 15\times 10^{-3}=17.212\times 10^{-4}A-m^2

(b) Magnetic field is given as B = 0.350 T

We know that torque is given by \tau =BINA=0.350\times 15\times 10^{-3}\times 25\times 45.9\times 10^{-4}=6.024\times 10^{-4}N-m

4 0
1 year ago
A beam of microwaves with λ = 0.9 mm is incident upon a 9 cm slit. At a distance of 1.5 m from the slit, what is the approximate
liq [111]

Answer:

3 cm

Explanation:

According to the question,

D=1.5 m.

d=9 cm.

\lambda =0.9 mm.

Now the approximate slit's image width is equal to width of central maxima.

And width of central maxima is twice the width from center to first maxima

So,

y=2\frac{\lambda (D)}{d}.

Substitute all the variable in above equation.

y=\frac{(2)0.9\times 10^{-2} m(1.5 m) }{0.09 m}.

y=3 cm.

5 0
1 year ago
Two horizontal rods are each held up by vertical strings tied to their ends. Rod 1 has length L and mass M; rod 2 has length 2L
antiseptic1488 [7]

Answer:

Rod 1 has greater initial angular acceleration; The initial angular acceleration for rod 1 is greater than for rod 2.

Explanation:

For the rod 1 the angular acceleration is

\tau_1 = I_1\alpha _1 \\\\\alpha_1 = \dfrac{\tau_1}{I_1}

Similarly, for rod 2

\alpha_2 = \dfrac{\tau_2}{I_2}.

Now, the moment of inertia for rod 1 is

I_1 = \dfrac{1}{3}ML^2,

and the torque acting on it is (about the center of mass)

\tau_1 = Mg\dfrac{L}{2};

therefore, the angular acceleration of rod 1 is  

\alpha_1 = \dfrac{Mg\dfrac{L}{2}}{\dfrac{1}{3}ML^2},

\boxed{\alpha_1 = \dfrac{3g}{2L} }

Now, for rod 2 the moment of inertia is

I_2 = \dfrac{1}{3}(2M)(2L)^2

I_2 = \dfrac{8}{3} ML^2,

and the torque acting is (about the center of mass)

\tau _2 = (2M)g \dfrac{(2L)}{2}

\tau _2 = 2MgL;

therefore, the angular acceleration \alpha_2 is

\alpha_2 = \dfrac{2MgL;}{\dfrac{8}{3} ML^2,}.

\boxed{\alpha_2 = \dfrac{3g}{4L}}

We see here that

\dfrac{3g}{2L} > \dfrac{3g}{4L}

therefore

\boxed{\alpha_1 > \alpha_2.}

In other words , the initial angular acceleration for rod 1 is greater than for rod 2.

7 0
1 year ago
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