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shusha [124]
1 year ago
5

Two horizontal rods are each held up by vertical strings tied to their ends. Rod 1 has length L and mass M; rod 2 has length 2L

and mass 2M. Each rod then has one of its supporting strings cut, causing the rod to begin pivoting about the end that is still tied up. Which rod has a larger initial angular acceleration?A Rod 1 B. Rod 2 C. The initial angular acceleration is the same for both.
Physics
1 answer:
antiseptic1488 [7]1 year ago
7 0

Answer:

Rod 1 has greater initial angular acceleration; The initial angular acceleration for rod 1 is greater than for rod 2.

Explanation:

For the rod 1 the angular acceleration is

\tau_1 = I_1\alpha _1 \\\\\alpha_1 = \dfrac{\tau_1}{I_1}

Similarly, for rod 2

\alpha_2 = \dfrac{\tau_2}{I_2}.

Now, the moment of inertia for rod 1 is

I_1 = \dfrac{1}{3}ML^2,

and the torque acting on it is (about the center of mass)

\tau_1 = Mg\dfrac{L}{2};

therefore, the angular acceleration of rod 1 is  

\alpha_1 = \dfrac{Mg\dfrac{L}{2}}{\dfrac{1}{3}ML^2},

\boxed{\alpha_1 = \dfrac{3g}{2L} }

Now, for rod 2 the moment of inertia is

I_2 = \dfrac{1}{3}(2M)(2L)^2

I_2 = \dfrac{8}{3} ML^2,

and the torque acting is (about the center of mass)

\tau _2 = (2M)g \dfrac{(2L)}{2}

\tau _2 = 2MgL;

therefore, the angular acceleration \alpha_2 is

\alpha_2 = \dfrac{2MgL;}{\dfrac{8}{3} ML^2,}.

\boxed{\alpha_2 = \dfrac{3g}{4L}}

We see here that

\dfrac{3g}{2L} > \dfrac{3g}{4L}

therefore

\boxed{\alpha_1 > \alpha_2.}

In other words , the initial angular acceleration for rod 1 is greater than for rod 2.

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Lerok [7]

Answer:

0.0000045 s

Explanation:

f = Frequency = 8 MHz

Clock cycle is given by

\dfrac{1}{f}=\dfrac{1}{8\times 10^6}=1.25\times 10^{-7}\ s

Time taken for 12 clock cycles

12\times 1.25\times 10^{-7}=0.0000015\ s

Time taken per instruction is 0.0000015 s

In reading and displaying information it requires 3 processes

1 for reading, 1 for searching and 1 for displaying.

3\times 0.0000015=0.0000045\ s

Time taken is 0.0000045 s

6 0
1 year ago
Air at 3 104 kg/s and 27 C enters a rectangular duct that is 1m long and 4mm 16 mm on a side. A uniform heat flux of 600 W/m2 is
ad-work [718]

Answer:

T_{out}=27.0000077 ºC

Explanation:

First, let's write the energy balance over the duct:

H_{out}=H_{in}+Q

It says that the energy that goes out from the duct (which is in enthalpy of the mass flow) must be equals to the energy that enters in the same way plus the heat that is added to the air. Decompose the enthalpies to the mass flow and specific enthalpies:

m*h_{out}=m*h_{in}+Q\\m*(h_{out}-h_{in})=Q

The enthalpy change can be calculated as Cp multiplied by the difference of temperature because it is supposed that the pressure drop is not significant.

m*Cp(T_{out}-T_{in})=Q

So, let's isolate T_{out}:

T_{out}-T_{in}=\frac{Q}{m*Cp}\\T_{out}=T_{in}+\frac{Q}{m*Cp}

The Cp of the air at 27ºC is 1007\frac{J}{kgK} (Taken from Keenan, Chao, Keyes, “Gas Tables”, Wiley, 1985.); and the only two unknown are T_{out} and Q.

Q can be found knowing that the heat flux is 600W/m2, which is a rate of heat to transfer area; so if we know the transfer area, we could know the heat added.

The heat transfer area is the inner surface area of the duct, which can be found as the perimeter of the cross section multiplied by the length of the duct:

Perimeter:

P=2*H+2*A=2*0.004m+2*0.016m=0.04m

Surface area:

A=P*L=0.04m*1m=0.04m^2

Then, the heat Q is:

600\frac{W}{m^2} *0.04m^2=24W

Finally, find the exit temperature:

T_{out}=T_{in}+\frac{Q}{m*Cp}\\T_{out}=27+\frac{24W}{3104\frac{kg}{s} *1007\frac{J}{kgK} }\\T_{out}=27.0000077

T_{out}=27.0000077 ºC

The temperature change so little because:

  • The mass flow is so big compared to the heat flux.
  • The transfer area is so little, a bigger length would be required.
3 0
2 years ago
An electron is moving northward in a magnetic field. The magnetic force on the electron is toward the northeast. What is the dir
ira [324]

To solve this problem we will use the vector concept given by the cross product between two perpendicular vectors and which results in a vector perpendicular to these two. From the definition of the Magnetic Force we have to

\vec{F}=q(\vec{v}\times\vec{B})

From the property of cross product the magnetic force should point in the direction perpendicular to the plane containing the vectors v and B.

The direction of velocity is north, and the direction of the magnetic force is northeast.

This cannot be the case, as the direction of magnetic force is not perpendicular to the direction of velocity of the charge.

Therefore the correct option for the direction of the magnetic field is <em>"This situation cannot exist because of the relative orientations of the velocity and force vectors" </em>

7 0
1 year ago
Diamond has an index of refraction of 2.419. What is the critical angle for internal reflection inside a diamond that is in liqu
Anestetic [448]

Answer:

B) 55.8°

Explanation:

n₁ = Refractive index of liquid = 2

n₂ = Refractive index of diamond = 2.419

Here it can be seen that the light ray is in the more dense medium and approaching the less dense medium which is a case of total internal reflection.

Critical angle

\theta_r=sin^{-1}\frac{n_1}{n_2}\\\Rightarrow \theta_r=sin^{-1}\frac{2}{2.419}\\\Rightarrow \theta_r=sin^{-1}0.826\\\Rightarrow \theta_r=55.7701^{\circ}

∴ Critical angle is 55.8°

7 0
2 years ago
The drawing shows an object attached to an ideal spring, which is hanging from the ceiling. The unstrained length of the spring
Andrew [12]

Image is missing so I have attached it.

Also, the options are missing and it is;

A) KE is has a maximum value at position 3. EPE has a maximum value at position 2. GPE has a maximum value at position 1.

B) KE is has a maximum value at position 1. EPE has a maximum value at position 2. GPE has a maximum value at position 3.

C) KE is has a maximum value at position 2. EPE has a maximum value at position 3. GPE has a maximum value at position 1.

D) KE is has a maximum value at position 1. EPE has a maximum value at position 3. GPE has a maximum value at position 2.

E) KE is has a maximum value at position 2. EPE has a maximum value at position 1. GPE has a maximum value at position 3.

Answer:

Option C is the correct answer which says; KE is has a maximum value at position 2. EPE has a maximum value at position 3. GPE has a maximum value at position 1.

Explanation:

If an object vibrates about its mean position, under the influence of a restoring force, such that restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement from the mean position, the motion of the object is called simple harmonic motion. During Simple harmonic motion, the sum of Kinetic and potential energy remains constant.

Now, Looking at the diagram, Kinetic Energy (KE) is maximum at position 2.

Looking at the options, only C and E agree with this.

Thus, our answer is either option C or E.

However, Option E is not going to be right because it says that GPE is at a maximum at position 3, which is not true as the maximum GPE will occur at position 1.

Thus,

Option C fulfills that and therefore will be the correct answer.

7 0
2 years ago
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