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2 years ago

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Joel uses a claw hammer to remove a nail from a wall. He applies a force of 40 newtons on the hammer. The hammer applies a force

of 160 newtons on the nail. The mechanical advantage of the hammer is .

2 answers:

Dahasolnce [82]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Explanation:

We know that the mechanical advantage of the hammer is is given by the ratio between the force applied on the hammer and the force required to overcome the given force.Force applied = 40 NForce required= 160 NMechanical advantage =Mechanical advantage =

Hence, the mechanical advantage of the hammer is 4.

Neporo4naja [7]2 years ago

5 0

Force B / Force A

So, 160 / 40 = 4

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If gravitational effects from other objects are negligible, the speed of the rock at a very great distance from the planet will approach a value of $\sqrt{3} v_{e}$

<u>Explanation:</u>

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Rock’s initial velocity , $v_{i}=2 v_{e}$ . Here the radius is R, so find the escape velocity as follows,

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$v_{e}=\sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}}$

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From given conditions,

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R tend to infinity when far away from the planet, so $v_{f}=0$

Then, kinetic energy at initial would be,

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Similarly, kinetic energy at final would be,

$k_{f}=\frac{1}{2} m v_{f}^{2}$

Here, $v_{f}=\text { final velocity }$

Now, adding potential and kinetic energies of initial and final and equating as below, find the final velocity as

$U_{i}+k_{i}=k_{f}+v_{f}$

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$\frac{1}{2} m\left(2 v_{e}\right)^{2}-\frac{G M m}{R}=\frac{1}{2} m v_{f}^{2}$

'm' and $\frac{1}{2}$ as common on both sides, so gets cancelled, we get as

$4\left(v_{e}\right)^{2}-\frac{2 G M}{R}=v_{f}^{2}$

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$4\left(v_{e}\right)^{2}-\left(v_{e}\right)^{2}=v_{f}^{2}$

$v_{f}^{2}=3\left(v_{e}\right)^{2}$

Taking squares out, we get,

$v_{f}=\sqrt{3} v_{e}$

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2 years ago