Answer:
6 hours 15 minutes
Explanation:
On the trip from L.A. to London, the plane travels at 750 mph against a headwind of 50 mph, and that makes the net 700 mph (in aviation speak, 750 is the airspeed, while 700 is the groundspeed). 5000 miles divided by 700 mph results in about 7.14 hours, or about 7 hours and 9 minutes. On the return trip, ASSUMING THE SAME WIND, the plane travels at 750 mph, but this time the wind of 50 mph is a tail wind. So the net (groundspeed) is 800 mph. Traveling 5000 miles at 800 mph only takes 6.25 hours, or 6 hours and 15 minutes.
Outbound flight 7 hours 9 minutes
Return flight 6 hours 15 minutes
Therefore, it can be reasonably concluded according to your
unfinished syllogism, that there are many people who do not
think scientifically.
The velocity of the aircraft relative to the ground is 240 km/h North
Explanation:
We can solve this problem by using vector addition. In fact, the velocity of the aircraft relative to the ground is the (vector) sum between the velocity of the aircraft relative to the air and the velocity of the air relative to the ground.
Mathematically:

where
v' is the velocity of the aircraft relative to the ground
v is the velocity of the aircraft relative to the air
is the velocity of the air relative to the ground.
Taking north as positive direction, we have:
v = +320 km/h
(since the air is moving from North)
Therefore, we find
(north)
Learn more about vector addition:
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Would presume you are asked to find the volume, since there is no second volume.
By General Gas Law:
P₁V₁/T₁ = P₂V₂/T₂
1.6 * 168 /255 = 1.3*V₂/285
V₂ = 1.6 * 168 * 285 / (1.3*255)
V₂ = 231.095
Final volume ≈ 231 cm³
There are some missing data in the text of the problem. I've found them online:
a) coefficient of friction dry steel piston - steel cilinder: 0.3
b) coefficient of friction with oil in between the surfaces: 0.03
Solution:
a) The force F applied by the person (300 N) must be at least equal to the frictional force, given by:

where

is the coefficient of friction, while N is the normal force. So we have:

since we know that F=300 N and

, we can find N, the magnitude of the normal force:

b) The problem is identical to that of the first part; however, this time the coefficienct of friction is

due to the presence of the oil. Therefore, we have: