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Naily [24]
2 years ago
14

what is a possible unit for the product VI, where V is the potential difference across a resistor and I is the current through t

he same resistor?
Physics
1 answer:
liq [111]2 years ago
5 0
Recall this equation for a device in a direct current circuit:
P = IV
P is the power dissipated by the device, I is the current through the device, and V is the voltage drop of the device.

If we choose to use the ampere as the unit of current and the volt as the unit of voltage, then the product of the current and the voltage will give the power with watts as the unit.
You might be interested in
Calculate the flux of the vector field F⃗ =−6i⃗ +5x2j⃗ −5k⃗ , through the square of side 8 in the plane y=1, centered on the y-a
Tasya [4]

Answer:

The flux is 682.6 Wb.

Explanation:

Given that,

Vector field F=-6i+5x^2j-5k

We need to calculate the flux

Using formula of flux

\phi=\int_{-4}^{4}\int_{-4}^{4}(F\cdot j\ dxdz)

Put the value into the formula

\phi=\int_{-4}^{4}\int_{-4}^{4}(-6i+5x^2j-5k)1\ dxdz

\phi=\int_{-4}^{4}\int_{-4}^{4}(5x^2)dxdz

\phi=2(\dfrac{x^3}{3})_{-4}^{4}\times(z)_{-4}^{4}

\phi=682.6\ Wb

Hence, The flux is 682.6 Wb.

7 0
1 year ago
If you have to apply 40n of force on a crowbar to lift a rock that weights 400n, what is the actual mechanical advantage of the
Mrrafil [7]
The mechanical advantage is defined as the ratio between the force produced by a machine and the force applied in input:
MA= \frac{F_{out}}{F_{in}}
For the crowbar of the problem, the force applied in input is 40 N, while the force produced in output is equal to the weight of the rock that is lifted, so 400 N. Therefore, the mechanical advantage is
MA= \frac{400 N}{40 N}=10
3 0
1 year ago
A circular coil 17.0 cm in diameter and containing nine loops lies flat on the ground. The Earth's magnetic field at this locati
sergeinik [125]

Answer:

The torque in the coil is  4.9 × 10⁻⁵ N.m  

Explanation:

T = NIABsinθ

Where;

T is the  torque on the coil

N is the number of loops = 9

I is the current = 7.8 A

A is the area of the circular coil = ?

B is the Earth's magnetic field = 5.5 × 10⁻⁵ T

θ is the angle of inclination = 90 - 56 = 34°

Area of the circular coil is calculated as follows;

A = \frac{\pi d^2}{4} \\\\A = \frac{\pi 0.17^2}{4} =0.0227 m^2

T = 9 × 7.8 × 0.0227 × 5.5×10⁻⁵ × sin34°

T = 4.9 × 10⁻⁵ N.m

Therefore, the torque in the coil is  4.9 × 10⁻⁵ N.m

5 0
1 year ago
A longitudinal wave is observed to be moving along a slinky. Adjacent crests are 2.4 m apart. Exactly 6 crests are observed to m
Umnica [9.8K]

Answer:

5

Explanation:

8 0
1 year ago
If this energy were used to vaporize water at 100.0 ∘C, how much water (in liters) could be vaporized? The enthalpy of vaporizat
Zanzabum

Answer:

0.429 L of water

Explanation:

First to all, you are not putting the value of the energy given to vaporize water, so, to explain better this problem, I will assume a value of energy that I took in a similar exercise before, which is 970 kJ.

Now, assuming that the water density is 1 g/mL, this is the same as saying that 1 g of water = 1 mL of water

If this is true, then, we can assume that 1 kg of water = 1 L of water.

Knowing this, we have to use the expression to get energy which is:

Q = m * ΔH

Solving for m:

m = Q / ΔH

Now "m" is the mass, but in this case, the mass of water is the same as the volume, so it's not neccesary to do a unit conversion.

Before we begin with the calculation, we need to put the enthalpy of vaporization in the correct units, which would be in grams. To do that, we need the molar mass of water:

MM = 18 g/mol

The enthalpy in mass:

ΔH = 40.7 kJ/mol / 18 g/mol = 2.261 kJ/g

Finally, solving for m:

m = 970 / 2.261 = 429 g

Converting this into volume:

429 g = 429 mL

429 / 1000 = 0.429 L of water

3 0
2 years ago
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