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a_sh-v [17]
2 years ago
14

You want to move a heavy box with mass 30.0 kg across a carpeted floor. You pull hard on one of the edges of the box at an angle

30∘ above the horizontal with a force of magnitude 240 N, causing the box to move horizontally. The force of friction between the moving box and the floor has magnitude 41.5 N . What is the box's acceleration just after it begins to move?

Physics
1 answer:
charle [14.2K]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a=5.54m/s^{2}

Explanation:

The net force, F_{net} of the box is expressed as a product of acceleration and mass hence

F_{net}=ma where m is mass and a is acceleration

Making a the subject, a= \frac {F_{net}}{m}

From the attached sketch,  

∑ F_{net}=Fcos\theta-F_{f} where F_{f} is frictional force and \theta is horizontal angle

Substituting ∑ F_{net} as F_{net} in the equation where we made a the subject

a= \frac {Fcos\theta-F_{f}}{m}

Since we’re given the value of F as 240N, F_{f} as 41.5N, \theta as 30^{o} and mass m as 30kg

a= \frac {240cos30-41.5}{30.0}=\frac {166.346}{30.0}=5.54m/s^{2}

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zysi [14]

Answer:

We need to multiply 12 to each term to eliminate fractions.

Explanation:

Given expression:

6-\frac{3}{4}x+\frac{1}{3}=\frac{1}{2}x+5

To eliminate the fraction we need to multiply each term by least common multiple of the denominators of the fraction.

The denominators in the above expressions are:

4, 3 and 2

The multiples of each can be listed below.

2⇒ 2,4,6,8,10,<u>12</u>,14,16.....

3⇒ 3,6,9,<u>12</u>,15,18

4⇒ 4,8,<u>12</u>.......

From the list of the multiples stated, we can see the least common multiple is 12.

So we will multiply each term by 12.

Multiplying 12 to both sides.

12(6-\frac{3}{4}x+\frac{1}{3})=12(\frac{1}{2}x+5)

Using distribution,

72-9x+4=6x+60

Thus we successfully eliminated the fractions.

5 0
2 years ago
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A giant wall clock with diameter d rests vertically on the floor. The minute hand sticks out from the face of the clock, and its
Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer:

d_{x}(t)=(D/2)cos(\frac{\pi}{30}*t)

Explanation:

We can try writing the equation of the horizontal component of the length of the minute hand in terms of distance and the angle, that depends of time in this particular case.

The x-component of the length of the minute hand is:

d_{x}(t)=dcos(\theta (t)) (1)

  • d is the length of the minute hand (d=D/2)
  • D is the diameter of the clock
  • t is the time (min)

Now, using the angular kinematic equations we can express the angle in term of angular velocity and time. As we know, the minute hand moves with a constant angular velocity, so we can use this equation:

\theta (t)=\omega *t (2)

Also we know, that the minute hand moves 90 degrees or π/2 rad in 15 min, so using the definition of angular velocity, we have:

\omega=\frac{\Delta \theta}{\Delta t}=\frac{\theta_{f}-\theta_{i}}{t_{f}-t{i}}=\frac{\pi/2-0}{15-0}=\frac{\pi}{30}

Now, let's put this value on (2)

\theta (t)=\frac{\pi}{30}*t

Finally the length x(t) of the shadow of the minute hand as a function of time t, will be:

d_{x}(t)=(D/2)cos(\frac{\pi}{30}*t)

I hope it helps you!

6 0
2 years ago
Two balls of unequal mass are hung from two springs that are not identical. The springs stretch the same distance as the two sys
baherus [9]

Answer:

a. Springs oscillate with the same frequency

Explanation:

As they both are in the same height at equilibrium, so

weight of ball must be balanced with spring force, that is

k×x=mg

k= stiffness constant of spring

x=distance stretched

g= acceleration due to gravity

so,  we can write

k/m=g/x

as the g is a constant and they stretched to same distance x so the g/x term becomes constant and

f\propto\sqrt{k/m}

and k/m is same for both the springs so they will oscillate at the same frequency.

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3 0
2 years ago
16) A wheel of moment of inertia of 5.00 kg-m2 starts from rest and accelerates under a constant torque of 3.00 N-m for 8.00 s.
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Answer:

57.6Joules

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Rotational kinetic energy of a body can be determined using the expression

Rotational kinetic energy = 1/2Iω²where;

I is the moment of inertia around axis of rotation. = 5kgm/s²

ω is the angular velocity = ?

Note that torque (T) = I¶ where;

¶ is the angular acceleration.

I is the moment of inertia

¶ = T/I

¶ = 3.0/5.0

¶ = 0.6rad/s²

Angular acceleration (¶) = ∆ω/∆t

∆ω = ¶∆t

ω = 0.6×8

ω = 4.8rad/s

Therefore, rotational kinetic energy = 1/2×5×4.8²

= 5×4.8×2.4

= 57.6Joules

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2 years ago
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Answer:

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On the other hand, reducing ice kinetic friction involves two ways. The first way is adding bumps to the ice which is known as pebbling. Fine water droplets are sprayed onto the flat ice surface. These droplets freeze into small "pebbles", which the curling stones "ride" on as they slide down the ice. This increases contact pressure which lowers the friction of the stone with the ice. As a result, the stones travel farther, and curl less.  

The second way to reduce the kinetic friction is sweeping in front of the large smooth stone. The sweeping action quickly heats and melts the pebbles on the ice leaving a film of water. This film reduces the friction between the stone and ice.

8 0
2 years ago
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