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Leto [7]
2 years ago
11

Why is designing a successful service operation often more difficult than a successful design of a tangible​ product?

Physics
1 answer:
lions [1.4K]2 years ago
4 0

A.  Strong element of customer involvement

B.  Lack of​ computer-aided design

C.  Tangible products are more personalized

D.  More challenging inventory considerations

Answer:

A. Strong element of customer involvement

Explanation:

A service operation involves managing and performing the activities that are necessary to deliver services at a good level of quality to customers. Service operation tends to be more difficult than a successful design of a tangible product because the process involves high customer contact because customers are consumers of the product but in the case of the services, they are also part of its production and this is more difficult to control. According to this, the answer is that a successful service operation is more difficult because it has a strong element of customer involvement.

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A rocket in deep space has an exhaust-gas speed of 2000 m/s. When the rocket is fully loaded, the mass of the fuel is five times
notka56 [123]

Answer:

 v_{f} = 1,386 m / s

Explanation:

Rocket propulsion is a moment process that described by the expression

       v_{f} - v₀ =  v_{r} ln (M₀ / Mf)

Where v are the velocities, final, initial and relative and M the masses

The data they give are the relative velocity (see = 2000 m / s) and the initial mass the mass of the loaded rocket (M₀ = 5Mf)

We consider that the rocket starts from rest (v₀ = 0)

At the time of burning half of the fuel the mass ratio is that the current mass is    

       M = 2.5 Mf

       v_{f} - 0 = 2000 ln (5Mf / 2.5 Mf) = 2000 ln 2

       v_{f} = 1,386 m / s

3 0
2 years ago
A 50-kg person stands 1.5 m away from one end of a uniform 6.0-m-long scaffold of mass 70.0 kg.
babymother [125]

Answer

given,

mass of the person, m = 50 Kg

length of scaffold = 6 m

mass of scaffold, M= 70 Kg

distance of person standing from one end = 1.5 m

Tension in the vertical rope = ?

now equating all the vertical forces acting in the system.

T₁ + T₂ = m g + M g

T₁ + T₂ = 50 x 9.8  + 70 x 9.8

T₁ + T₂ = 1176...........(1)

system is equilibrium so, the moment along the system will also be zero.

taking moment about rope with tension T₂.

now,

T₁ x 6 - mg x (6-1.5) - M g x 3 = 0

'3 m' is used because the weight of the scaffold pass through center of gravity.

6 T₁ = 50 x 9.8 x 4.5 + 70 x 9.8 x 3

6 T₁ = 4263

    T₁ = 710.5 N

from equation (1)

T₂ = 1176 - 710.5

 T₂ = 465.5 N

hence, T₁ = 710.5 N and T₂ = 465.5 N

4 0
2 years ago
Two long, parallel, current-carrying wires lie in an xy-plane. The first wire lies on the line y = 0.340 m and carries a current
sladkih [1.3K]

Answer:

The y-value of the line in the xy-plane where the total magnetic field is zero  U = 0.1355 \ m

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The distance of wire one from two along the y-axis is    y = 0.340 m

   The current on the first wire is  I_1 =  (27.5i) A

    The force per unit length on each wire is  Z =  295 \mu N/m = 295*10^{-6}  N/m

Generally the force per unit length is mathematically represented as

         Z = \frac{F}{l}  =  \frac{\mu_o I_1I_2}{2\pi y}

=>      \frac{\mu_o I_1I_2}{2\pi y}  =  295

Where  \mu_o is the permeability of free space with a constant value of  \mu_o  =  4\pi *10^{-7} \ N/A2

substituting values

       \frac{ 4\pi *10^{-7} 27.5 * I_2}{2\pi * 0.340}  =  295 *10^{-6}

=>    I_2 =  18.23 \ A

Let U  denote the  line in the xy-plane where the total magnetic field is zero

So  

      So the force per unit length of  wire 2  from  line  U is equal to the force per unit length of wire 1  from  line  (y - U)      

   So  

         \frac{\mu_o  I_2  }{2 \pi U} =  \frac{\mu_o  I_1  }{2 \pi(y -  U) }

substituting values

          \frac{  18.23  }{ U} =  \frac{ 27.5 }{(0.34 -  U) }

         6.198 -18.23U = 27.5U

          6.198=45.73U

          U = 0.1355 \ m              

5 0
2 years ago
An electron and a proton are held on an x axis, with the electron at x = + 1.000 m and the proton at x = - 1.000 m. Part A How m
r-ruslan [8.4K]

PART A)

Electrostatic potential at the position of origin is given by

V = \frac{kq_1}{r_1} + \frac{kq_2}{r_2}

here we have

q_1 = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} C

q_2 = -1.6 \times 10^{-19} C

r_1 = r_2 = 1 m

now we have

V = \frac{Ke}{r} - \frac{Ke}{r}

V = 0

Now work done to move another charge from infinite to origin is given by

W = q(V_f - V_i)

here we will have

W = e(0 - 0) = 0

so there is no work required to move an electron from infinite to origin

PART B)

Initial potential energy of electron

U = \frac{Kq_1e}{r_1} + \frac{kq_2e}{r_2}

U = \frac{9\times 10^9(-1.6\times 10^{-19}(-1.6 \times 10^{-19})}{19} + \frac{9\times 10^9(1.6\times 10^{-19}(-1.6 \times 10^{-19})}{21}

U = (2.3\times 10^{-28})(\frac{1}{19} - \frac{1}{21})

U = 1.15\times 10^{-30}

Now we know

KE = \frac{1}{2}mv^2

KE = \frac{1}{2}(9.1\times 10^{-31}(100)^2

KE = 4.55 \times 10^{-27} kg

now by energy conservation we will have

So here initial total energy is sufficient high to reach the origin

PART C)

It will reach the origin

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2 years ago
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2 years ago
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