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tigry1 [53]
2 years ago
14

A quarterback throws a football at 40km/hr to a receiver 50yd away. How much time does it take the ball to reach the receiver

Physics
1 answer:
Akimi4 [234]2 years ago
3 0

Given:

Distance = 50 yard = 45.72 meter

Speed = 40 km/hr = 11.11 m/s

To find:

Time required by ball to reach the receiver = ?

Formula used:

speed = \frac{distance}{time}

Solution:

The speed of the ball is given by,

speed = \frac{distance}{time}

Thus,

Time = \frac{distance}{speed}

Distance = 50 yard = 45.72 meter

Speed = 40 km/hr = 11.11 m/s

Time = 4.12 second

Hence, ball reaches the receiver in 4.12 second.

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4. A 505-turn circular-loop coil with a diameter of 15.5 cm is initially aligned so that
Basile [38]

The strength of the magnetic field is 4.8\cdot 10^{-5} T

Explanation:

According to Faraday's Law, the magnitude of the induced emf in the coil is equal to the rate of changeof the flux linkage through the coil:

\epsilon = \frac{N\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t} (1)

where

N = 505 is the number of turns in the coil

\Delta \Phi is the change in magnetic flux through the coil

\Delta t = 2.77 ms = 2.77\cdot 10^{-3} s is the time interval

\epsilon = 0.166 V

The coil is rotated from a position perpendicular to the Earth's magnetic field to a position parallel to it, so the final flux is zero, and the magnitude of the flux change is simply equal to the initial flux:

\Delta \Phi = B A cos \theta

where

B is the strength of the magnetic field

A is the area of the coil

\theta=0^{\circ} is the angle between the normal to the coil and the field

The area of the coil can be written as

A=\pi r^2

where

r=\frac{15.5 cm}{2}=7.75 cm = 7.75\cdot 10^{-2} m is its radius

Substituting everything into eq.(1) and solving for B, we find:

\epsilon= \frac{NB\pi r^2 cos \theta}{\Delta t}\\B=\frac{\epsilon \Delta t}{\pi r^2 cos \theta}=\frac{(0.166)(2.77\cdot 10^{-3})}{(505)\pi (7.75\cdot 10^{-2})^2(cos 0^{\circ})}=4.8\cdot 10^{-5} T

Learn more about magnetic fields:

brainly.com/question/3874443

brainly.com/question/4240735

#LearnwithBrainly

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A charge q = 3 × 10-6 C of mass m = 2 × 10-6 kg, and speed v = 5 × 106 m/s enters a uniform magnetic field. The mass experiences
NeX [460]

Answer:

Magnetic field, B = 0.004 mT

Explanation:

It is given that,

Charge, q=3\times 10^{-6}\ C

Mass of charge particle, m=2\times 10^{-6}\ C

Speed, v=5\times 10^{6}\ m/s

Acceleration, a=3\times 10^{4}\ m/s^2

We need to find the minimum magnetic field that would produce such an acceleration. So,

ma=qvB\ sin\theta

For minimum magnetic field,

ma=qvB

B=\dfrac{ma}{qv}

B=\dfrac{2\times 10^{-6}\ C\times 3\times 10^{4}\ m/s^2}{3\times 10^{-6}\ C\times 5\times 10^{6}\ m/s}

B = 0.004 T

or

B = 4 mT

So, the magnetic field produce such an acceleration at 4 mT. Hence, this is the required solution.

4 0
2 years ago
The diagram shows a heat engine. In which area of the diagram is unusable thermal energy detected?
Marat540 [252]
Nope, I disagree with the former answer. The answer is definitely Z. <u>W area</u> (boxed with red outline) is represented as the hot reservoir while <u>Z area</u> is the cold reservoir (boxed with blue outline). X area is the heat engine itself and Y area is the work produced from thermal energy from hot reservoir. Typically, all heat engines lose some heat to the environment (based from the second law of thermodynamics) that is symbolically illustrated by the lost energy in the cold reservoir. This lost thermal energy is basically the unusable thermal energy. The higher thermal energy lost, the less efficient your heat engine is. 
7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The temperature of a heat engine is 500k some of the heat generated by the engine flows to the surroundings which are at a temp
Ierofanga [76]

1-125/500)x100=efficiency

1-1/4)x100 =75pc

3 0
1 year ago
Wood block 1 in (Figure 1), which has a mass of 1.0 kg, is at rest on a wood ramp. The angle of the ramp is 20º above horizontal
Sergeeva-Olga [200]

Answer:

Explanation:

For this problem we use the translational equilibrium condition. Our reference frame for block 1 is one axis parallel to the plane and the other perpendicular to the plane.

X axis

      -Aₓ - f_e +T = 0        (1)

Y axis

      N₁ - W_y = 0              ( 2)

let's use trigonometry for the weight components

      sin θ = Wₓ / W

      cos θ = W_y / W

      Wₓ = W sin θ

      W_y = W cos θ

We write the diagram for the second body.

Note that in the block the positive direction rd upwards, therefore for block 2 the positive direction must be downwards

      W₂ -T = 0                             (3)

we add the equations is 1 and 3

       - W₁ sin θ - μ N₁ + W₂ = 0

from equation 2

       N₁ = W₁ cos θ

       

we substitute

        -W₁ sin θ - μ (W₁ cos θ) + W₂ = 0

W₂ = m₁ g (without ea - very expensive)

This is the smallest value that supports the equilibrium system

7 0
2 years ago
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