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kirill [66]
2 years ago
9

The $40 million lottery payment that you have just won actually pays $2 million per year for 20 years. The interest rate is 8%.

Business
1 answer:
Lyrx [107]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Explanation:

We will apply the annuity formula because payments are made equally at year end for 40 years. we would have applied compound formula if total payment was made at year 40.

Total Payment = $40 mill.

Annual Payment = 2 mill.

Total time for payments =20

Ir = 8%

A)

Present Value of innings applying annuity formula

P=R(1-(1+i)^-n)/i

P=2(1-(1+8%)^-20)/8%

P=2(1-0.2145)/8%

P=2*9.8181

P=19.6362

B)

Present Value of innings applying annuity formula with Advance payment

Value of the first payment is same because it is paid at day 1 so present value is same i.e $2 mill.

Present Value of other 19 Payments with 19 years time from today

Applying the same formula

P=R(1-(1+i)^-n)/i

P=2(1-(1+8%)^-19)/8%

P=2(1-0.2317)/8%

P=2*9.6035

P=19.207

Present value of 1st payment at Year.0 = 2 mill

Present value of 19 payment at Year.0 = 19.207

Total Value =2+19.207 = $21.02 mill

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Consider the P/E ratios of the following companies: Company A: 7.4 Company B: 11.3 Company C: 14.8 Company D: 9.1 Among these fo
matrenka [14]

Answer:

highest relative value highest dollar

Explanation:

The price to earning ratio is a financial metric used to value a company. it compares the price of a stock to the earnings of the stock. the higher the metric is, the higher the valuation of the firm

price to earning ratio (P / E) = market value per share / earnings

The higher the P/E, the higher the relative value of the firm relative to other firms. This is because investors are confident about the prospects of growth of the firm and are willing to pay a higher price for the stock of the company

Types of P/E ratio

1. trailing p/e - it is calculated by dividing current share price by the earnings per share for the past 12 months

2. forward p/e - it is calculated by dividing current share price by the estimated per share earnings for the next 12 months

5 0
2 years ago
Brian invests $11,500, at 6% interest, compounded semiannually for 2 years. Manually calculate the compound amount (in $) for hi
Katena32 [7]

Answer:

The important thing to remember here is that the interest is compounded semi annually, which means twice a year. When the 1st interest is compounded, the second interest is calculated on that new amount.

(11,500 + (11,500×6%)) = $ 12,190

(12,190 + (12190×6%)) = $ 12921.40

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
As the manager of Margarita Mexican Restaurant, you must deal with a variety of business transactions. Provide an explanation fo
nalin [4]

Answer:

Explanation:

The explanation of the following transactions is given

a. Debit Equipment and credit Cash.  

In this transaction, the equipment is purchased for cash so the equipment account is debited and the cash account is credited.

b. Debit Dividends and credit Cash.  

In this transaction, the dividend is paid for cash so the dividend account is debited and the cash account is credited.

c. Debit Wages Payable and credit Cash.  

In this transaction, the Accrued wages are paid for cash so the wages payable account is debited and cash account is credited.

d. Debit Equipment and credit Common Stock  

In this transaction, the equipment is purchased for exchange of the common stock so the equipment account is debited and common stock is credited.

e. Debit Cash and credit Unearned Revenue  

In this transaction, the cash is received for service rendered in the future so the cash account is debited and Unearned Revenue is credited.

f. Debit Advertising Expense and credit Cash  

In this transaction, the advertising expense is paid for cash so the advertising expense account is debited and cash is credited.

g. Debit Cash and credit Service Revenue.

In this transaction, the cash is received for service performed so the cash account is debited and service Revenue is credited.

5 0
2 years ago
Manufacturing costs for Davenport Company during 2018 were as follows: Beginning Finished Goods, 1/1/18 $ 24,400 Beginning Raw M
Nadya [2.5K]

Answer:

1. $283,400

2. $214,968

3. $790,468

4. $780,168

5. $781,868

Explanation:

Material used = Beginning Materials + Purchases - Ending Materials

                       = $35,800 + $304,500 - $40,400

                       = $299,900

Then,

<em>Direct Materials Used = Total Materials Used - Indirect Material</em>

                                     = $299,900 - $16,500

                                     = $283,400

Applied overhead = Application Rate × Actual Activity        

                               =  78% ×  $275,600

                               =  $214,968

Calculation of Total Manufacturing Costs

Direct Materials                         $283,400

Direct Labor                               $275,600

Overheads Applied                    $214,968

Indirect Materials                          $16,500

Total Manufacturing Costs        $790,468

Cost of Goods Manufactured = Beginning Work in Process Inventory + Manufacturing Costs - Ending Work in Process Inventory

                                                  = $110,600 + $790,468 - $120,900

                                                  = $780,168

Cost of goods sold = Beginning Finished Goods Inventory + Cost of Goods Manufactured - Ending Finished Goods Inventory    

                                =  $ 24,400 +  $780,168 -  $22,700    

                                = $781,868

7 0
2 years ago
Walter Industries’ current ratio is 0.5. Considered alone, which of the following actions would increase the company’s current r
MissTica

Answer:

a. Borrow using short-term notes payable and use the cash to increase inventories.

Explanation:

The formula to compute the current ratio is shown below:

Current ratio = Total Current assets ÷ total current liabilities  

where,

The current assets = Cash and cash equivalents + Short-term investments + Accounts and notes receivable + Inventories + Prepaid expenses and other current assets

And, current liabilities would be

= Short-term obligations + Accounts payable

If the current ratio is 0.5 which means that the current asset is 1 and the current liabilities are 2 so the most appropriate option is a.

4 0
2 years ago
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