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aliya0001 [1]
2 years ago
5

One serving (1 cup) from the fruits group is equal to 1 cup of fruit, 1 cup of 100% fruit juice, or 1/2 cup of dried fruit. Why

is the serving size for dried fruit smaller than the serving size for other forms of fruit?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Dmitrij [34]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Because the dried fruit contains less water

Step-by-step explanation:

Drying is a phenomenon whereby heat is used to remove moisture from a material.

Fruit juice contains about 85% water, that means the remaining fruit content is 25%

The average water content of fruits is about 89%, this means that the remaining fruit content is 11%.

Dried fruit contains about 20% water which means that the remaining fruit content is 80%.

If we assume that each cup serving weighs 1kg this implies that;

The real fruit content (vitamins, minerals etc) masses are;

Fruit juice = 0.25kg

Fruit = 0.11kg

Dried fruit = 0.8kg

We can see that the mass of the fruit content in the dried fruit is twice more than than of the fruit and fruit juice individually. This is why half cup of dry fruit is equated to one cup of the other two.

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A small dealership leased 21 Suburu Outbacks on 2-year leases. When the cars were returned at the end of the lease, the mileage
Liula [17]

Answer:

yes 30 is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
Jerry makes $40,000 a year working at a nearby factory. He gets two weeks paid vacation per year, plus five other paid holidays.
JulijaS [17]

Answer:

Vacation pays are not included in salaries. Therefore, Jerry's calculation is wrong.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given is :

Jerry makes $40,000 a year working at a nearby factory.

He gets two weeks paid vacation per year, plus five other paid holidays.

So total paid holidays become = 14+5=19 days

Subtracting 19 from 365 days and assuming that Jerry works for 365 days a year.

We get = 365-19=346 days

So, his per day salary will be = \frac{40000}{346}= 115.60

Vacation pays are not included in salaries. Therefore, Jerry's calculation is wrong.

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A coin will be flipped repeatedly until the sequence TTH (tail/tail/head) comes up. Successive flips are independent, and the co
padilas [110]

Answer:

P = \frac{1}{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

The calculation of the value of p minimizes is shown below:-

We will assume the probability of coming heads be p

p(H) = p

p(T) = 1 - P

Now, H and T are only outcomes of flipping a coin

So,

P(TTH) = (1 - P) = (1 - P) (1 - P) P

= (1 + P^2 - 2 P) P

= P^3 - 2P^2 + P

In order to less N,TTH

we need to increase P(TTH)

The equation will be

\frac{d P(TTH)}{dP} = 0

3P^2 - 4P + 1 = 0

(3P - 1) (P - 1) = 0

P = 1 and 1 ÷ 3

For P(TTH) to be maximum

\frac{d^2 P(TTH)}{dP} < 0 for\ P\ critical\\\\\frac{d (3P^2 - 4P - 1)}{dP}

= 6P - 4

and

(6P - 4) is negative which is for

P = \frac{1}{3}

5 0
2 years ago
Nadiya determines that there are no fractions equivalent to 2/10 with a denominator greater than 10, but less than 20, that have
frosja888 [35]

Answer:

Yes, Nadiya is correct. By multiplying the numerator and denominator by 2, the first fraction equivalent to 2/10 is 4/20.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find a fraction equivalent to 2/10, we need to multiply (or divide) the numerator and denominator by the same nonzero whole number.

As we need an equivalent fraction with a denominator greater than 10, we will need to multiply and not divide.

The first nonzero whole number we have is 1. If we multiply the numerator and denominator by 1, we get 2/10. Obviously, 2/10 is equivalent to 2/10 but the denominator is not greater than 10, so it doesn't help us.

The next whole number is 2. When we multiply the numerator and denominator by 2, we get 4/20. The denominator is not less than 20.

If we keep going, we will get 6/30, 8/40 and so on.  

Therefore, Nadiya is correct.

The correct answer is the first one.

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If the sample space S is an infinite set, does this necessarily imply that any random variable X defined from S will have an inf
alekssr [168]

Answer: no

Step-by-step explanation: see attachment

4 0
2 years ago
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