Answer:
a) The sign of the charge is positive.
b) The magnetic force on the particle is 0.050 newtons.
Explanation:
The magnetic force F on a moving charge with velocity v passing through a magnetic field B is:
(1)
a)
Because it is a cross product, we can find the direction of the force using the right-hand rule, that is too the direction of the movement. We have two possibilities here because the velocity vector and magnetic field are perpendicular: the particle deflects towards east or toward west, which depends on the charge of the particle. Note that if you put your right hand fingers, except thumb, pointing towards north (direction of velocity) and later close them in the direction of the magnetic field, if you maintain your thumb perpendicular to this movement it will point towards east (See figure), so that will be de direction of the force if the charge is positive, but if the charge is negative, the direction will be opposite (towards west). So the charge has to be positive to deflects towards east.
b)
Now by 1:

Answer:
0.647 nC
Explanation:
The force experienced by a charge due to the presence of an electric field is given by

where
q is the charge
E is the magnitude of the electric field
In this problem, each antenna is modelled as it was a single point charge, experiencing a force of

Therefore, if the electric field magnitude is

Then the charge on each antenna would be

Acceleration is the change in velocity divided by time. The change in velocity is -30m/s and time is 5s. If you divide -30m/s by 5s, you get -6m/s<span>².</span>
Answer:
The amount of work that must be done to compress the gas 11 times less than its initial pressure is 909.091 J
Explanation:
The given variables are
Work done = 550 J
Volume change = V₂ - V₁ = -0.5V₁
Thus the product of pressure and volume change = work done by gas, thus
P × -0.5V₁ = 500 J
Hence -PV₁ = 1000 J
also P₁/V₁ = P₂/V₂ but V₂ = 0.5V₁ Therefore P₁/V₁ = P₂/0.5V₁ or P₁ = 2P₂
Also to compress the gas by a factor of 11 we have
P (V₂ - V₁) = P×(V₁/11 -V₁) = P(11V₁ - V₁)/11 = P×-10V₁/11 = -PV₁×10/11 = 1000 J ×10/11 = 909.091 J of work
<h3><u>Answer;</u></h3>
= 1.256 m
<h3><u>Explanation;</u></h3>
We can start by finding the spring constant
F = k*y
Therefore; k = F/y = m*g/y
= 0.40kg*9.8m/s^2/(0.76 - 0.41)
= 11.2 N/m
Energy is conserved
Let A be the maximum displacement
Therefore; 1/2*k*A^2 = 1/2*k*(1.20 - 0.41)^2 + 1/2*m*v^2
Thus; A = sqrt((1.20 - 0.55)^2 + m/k*v^2)
= sqrt((1.20 -0.55)^2 + 0.40/9.8*1.6^2)
= 0.846 m
Thus; the length will be 0.41 + 0.846 = 1.256 m