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lakkis [162]
2 years ago
7

The hammer of an electric bell strikes 1440 times in a minute and does a work of 0.2 J per strike. what is the power of hammer i

n S.I.system?
Physics
2 answers:
crimeas [40]2 years ago
7 0
First we need to convert the frequency to the correct SI units (seconds)

Frequency of bell = 1440/60 = 24 Hertz (Strikes per second)

Power is the rate of work being done or the work done per second.

P = E/t = (24 * 0.2)/1 = 4.8 Watt
Kitty [74]2 years ago
4 0
Hello there.

The hammer of an electric bell strikes 1440 times in a minute and does a work of 0.2 J per strike. what is the power of hammer in S.I.system?

4.8 Watt
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Two objects interact with each other and with no other objects. Initially object A has a speed of 5 m/s and object B has a speed
Radda [10]

Answer:

We can conclude that there is a decrease in kinetic energy of the particles due to their elastic collision, since kinetic energy is directly proportional to squared velocity of the particles.

Explanation:

Given:

initial velocity of particle A, Ua = 5m/s

initial velocity of particle B, Ub = 10 m/s

final velocity of particle A, Va = 4m/s

final velocity of particle B, Vb = 7m/s

For particle A:

The final velocity is 1 less than the initial velocity.

For particle B:

The final velocity is 3 less than the initial velocity.

We can conclude that there is a loss in kinetic energy due to elastic collision of the two particles, since kinetic energy is directly proportional to squared velocity of the particles. A decrease in velocity means decrease in kinetic energy.

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2 years ago
An object at rest is suddenly broken apart into two fragments by an explosion one fragment acquires twice the kinetic energy of
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<span>First, we use the kinetic energy equation to create a formula: Ka = 2Kb 1/2(ma*Va^2) = 2(1/2(mb*Vb^2)) The 1/2 of the right gets cancelled by the 2 left of the bracket so: 1/2(ma*Va^2) = mb*Vb^2 (1) By the definiton of momentum we can say: ma*Va = mb*Vb And with some algebra: Vb = (ma*Va)/mb (2) Substituting (2) into (1), we have: 1/2(ma*Va^2) = mb*((ma*Va)/mb)^2 Then: 1/2(ma*Va^2) = mb*(ma^2*Va^2)/mb^2 We cancel the Va^2 in both sides and cancel the mb at the numerator, leving the denominator of the right side with exponent 1: 1/2(ma) = (ma^2)/mb Cancel the ma of the left, leaving the right one with exponent 1: 1/2 = ma/mb And finally we have that: mb/2 = ma mb = 2ma</span>
8 0
2 years ago
In 1993, Ileana Salvador of Italy walked 3.0 km in under 12.0 min. Suppose that during 115 m of her walk Salvador is observed to
dexar [7]

Answer:

t = 25 seconds

Explanation:

Given that,

Distance, d = 115 m

Initial speed, u = 4.2 m/s

Final speed, v = 5 m/s

We need to find the time taken in increasing the speed.

We know that,

Acceleration, a=\dfrac{v-u}{t} ....(1)

The third equation of kinematics is as follows :

v^2-u^2=2ad\\\\\text{Put the value of a in above equation}\\\\v^2-u^2=2\times \dfrac{v-u}{t}\times d\\\\\because (a^2-b^2)=(a-b)(a+b)\\\\(v-u)(v+u)=\dfrac{2\times (v-u)d}{t}\\\\t=\dfrac{2d}{v+u}\\\\\text{Putting all the values}\\\\t=\dfrac{2\times 115}{4.2+5}\\\\t=25\ s

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6 0
2 years ago
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Sveta_85 [38]

Answer:

(2) −1 e

Explanation:

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The antiparticle of up quark is antiup quark and has charge -\frac{2}{3}e charge.

The antiparticle of down quark is antidown quark and has charge +\frac{1}{3}e charge.

An antibaryon is composed of two anti-up quark and one anti-down quark.

Net charge of the anti-baryon is:

2\times (-\frac{2}{3} e)+1\times (+\frac{1}{3})e=-1e

Thus, antibaryon has -1e charge.

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Taylor places a nail on a bar magnet. The nail sticks to the magnet when lifted up off the table. She touches a paperclip to the
Ratling [72]
Prior to touching the bar magnet, the magnetic domains in the nail were pointing in random directions. When Taylor touched the nail to the bar magnet the magnetic fields of the magnetic domains aligned and it became a temporary magnet.
5 0
2 years ago
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