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2 years ago

An antibaryon composed of two antiup quarks

Physics

1 answer:

Sveta_85 [38]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

(2) −1 e

Explanation:

A quark is the lightest elementary particles which form hadron such as proton and neutron. A quark has fractional charge.

Up, charm and top quarks have $+\frac{2}{3} e$ charge where as down, strange and bottom quarks have $-\frac{1}{3}e$ charge.

The antiparticle of up quark is antiup quark and has charge $-\frac{2}{3}e$ charge.

The antiparticle of down quark is antidown quark and has charge $+\frac{1}{3}e$ charge.

An antibaryon is composed of two anti-up quark and one anti-down quark.

Net charge of the anti-baryon is:

$2\times (-\frac{2}{3} e)+1\times (+\frac{1}{3})e=-1e$

Thus, antibaryon has -1e charge.

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4. A 505-turn circular-loop coil with a diameter of 15.5 cm is initially aligned so that

Basile [38]

The strength of the magnetic field is $4.8\cdot 10^{-5} T$

Explanation:

According to Faraday's Law, the magnitude of the induced emf in the coil is equal to the rate of changeof the flux linkage through the coil:

$\epsilon = \frac{N\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}$ (1)

where

N = 505 is the number of turns in the coil

$\Delta \Phi$ is the change in magnetic flux through the coil

$\Delta t = 2.77 ms = 2.77\cdot 10^{-3} s$ is the time interval

$\epsilon = 0.166 V$

The coil is rotated from a position perpendicular to the Earth's magnetic field to a position parallel to it, so the final flux is zero, and the magnitude of the flux change is simply equal to the initial flux:

$\Delta \Phi = B A cos \theta$

where

B is the strength of the magnetic field

A is the area of the coil

$\theta=0^{\circ}$ is the angle between the normal to the coil and the field

The area of the coil can be written as

$A=\pi r^2$

where

$r=\frac{15.5 cm}{2}=7.75 cm = 7.75\cdot 10^{-2} m$ is its radius

Substituting everything into eq.(1) and solving for B, we find:

$\epsilon= \frac{NB\pi r^2 cos \theta}{\Delta t}\\B=\frac{\epsilon \Delta t}{\pi r^2 cos \theta}=\frac{(0.166)(2.77\cdot 10^{-3})}{(505)\pi (7.75\cdot 10^{-2})^2(cos 0^{\circ})}=4.8\cdot 10^{-5} T$

Learn more about magnetic fields:

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8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

In a series circuit, a generator (1300 Hz, 12.0 V) is connected to a 14.0- resistor, a 4.40-μF capacitor, and a 6.00-mH inductor

klemol [59]

Answer:

(a) 2.8 V

(b) 5.6 V

(c) 9.8 V

Explanation:

Given:

Frequency of the generator (f) = 1300 Hz)

Terminal voltage (V) =12.0 V

Resistance of resistor (R) = 14.0 Ω

Capacitance of capacitor (C) = 4.40 μF = 4.40 × 10⁻⁶ F

Inductance of the inductor (L) = 6.00 mH = 6.00 × 10⁻³ H

In order to find the voltages across each, we first need to find the reactance and impedance.

Reactance of the inductor is given as:

$X_L=2\pi f L\\\\X_L=2\times 3.14\times 1300\times 6.00\times 10^{-3}\\\\X_L=49\ \Omega$

Reactance of the capacitor is given as:

$X_C=\frac{1}{2\pi fC}\\\\X_C=\frac{1}{2\times 3.14\times 1300\times 4.40\times 10^{-6}}\\\\X_C =28\ \Omega$

Now, impedance is given as:

$Z=\sqrt{X_L^2+X_C^2}\\\\Z=\sqrt{(49)^2+(28)^2}\\\\Z=\sqrt{3185}=56.4\ \Omega$

Current across the circuit is given as:

$I=\frac{V}{Z}\\\\I=\frac{12}{56.4}=0.2\ A$

As resistor, capacitor and inductor are connected in series, the current across each of them is same and equal to total current in the circuit.

(a)

Voltage across the resistor is given as:

$V_R=IR\\\\V_R=0.2\times 14=2.8\ V$

Therefore, the voltage across resistor is 2.8 V.

(b)

Voltage across the capacitor is given as:

$V_C=IX_C\\\\V_C=0.2\times 28=5.6\ V$

Therefore, the voltage across the capacitor is 5.6 V.

(c)

Voltage across the inductor is given as:

$V_L=IX_L\\\\V_L=0.2\times 49=9.8\ V$

Therefore, the voltage across the inductor is 9.8 V.

6 0

2 years ago

If a single constant force acts on an object that moves on a straight line, the object's velocity is a linear function of time.

olya-2409 [2.1K]

Answer:

$F=mkv$

Explanation:

Given that

$v = v_i - kx$

We know that acceleration a given as

$a=\dfrac{dv}{dt}$

$v = v_i - kx$

$\dfrac{dv}{dt}=\dfrac{dv_i}{dt}-k\dfrac{dx}{dt}$

$\dfrac{dv}{dt}=0-k\dfrac{dx}{dt}$

We know that

$F=m\dfrac{dv}{dt}$

$F=-mk\dfrac{dx}{dt}$

$F=-mkv$

So the magnitude of force F

$F=mkv$

5 0

2 years ago

Sea breezes that occur near the shore are attributed to a difference between land and water with respect to what property?

ddd [48]

Answer:

a. mass density

Explanation:

Land and sea breeze that occur near the shore are due to the variation of mass density of air with change in temperature.

When the air gets heated it becomes rarer in density and thus rises up in the atmosphere and its space is occupied by a cooler and denser air that flows to the place.

During the day the land is warmer than the sea so the sea breeze blows and during the night the water bodies are warmer than the land so the land breeze blows.

7 0

2 years ago

Susan and Hannah are each riding a swing. Susan has a mass of 25 kilograms, and Hannah has a mass of 30 kilograms. Susan’s swing

Charra [1.4K]

Answer:

Kinetic energy is given by:

K.E. = 0.5 m v²

Susan has mass, m = 25 kg

Velocity with which Susan moves is, v = 10 m/s

Hannah has mass, m' = 30 kg

Velocity with which Hannah moves is, v' = 8.5 m/s

Kinetic energy of Susan:

0.5 m v² = 0.5 × 25 kg × (10 m/s)² = 1250 J

Kinetic energy of Hannah:

0.5 m v'² = 0.5 × 30 kg × (8.5 m/s)² = 1083.75 J

Susan's kinetic energy is 1250 J and Hannah's kinetic energy is 1083.75 J.

Since kinetic energy is dependent on mass and square of speed. Thus, speed has a greater effect than mass. As it is evident from the above example. Susan has greater kinetic energy due to higher speed than Hannah.

4 0

2 years ago