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Verizon [17]
2 years ago
6

Two people are playing tug-of-war. Due to their choice of footwear, theircoefficient of static friction is different. Participan

t 1 has a mass of 60 kg, acoefficient of static friction of 2.0, and can pull with a maximum force of1000 N. Participant 2 has a mass of 80 kg and a coefficient of staticfriction of 1.2, and can pull with a maximum force of 1200 N. Who wins?
Physics
1 answer:
VMariaS [17]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Participant 1 wins

Explanation:

Coefficient of static, μ = F/N, where F is the frictional force and N is the normal force.

The force exerted by each participant is the sum of the frictional force acting on each of them and the maximum force with which each participant pulls on the rope.

Frictional force, F =  μ * N

Normal force, N = mass * acceleration due to gravity, g

For Participant 1; μ = 2.0, mass = 60 kg, g = 9.8 m/s²

Frictional force = 2.0 * 60 * 9.8 = 1176 N

Total force = (1176 + 1000) = 2176 N

For Participant 2; μ = 1.2, mass = 80 kg, g = 9.8 m/s²

Frictional force = 1.2 * 80 * 9.8 = 940.8N

Total force = (940.8 + 1200) N = 2140.8 N

From the values obtained above, Participant 1 exerts more force than Participant 2, therefore, Participant 1 wins

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Snowboarder Jump—Energy and Momentum
soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

THE ANSWER TERMS ARE DEFINED BLOW:-

Explanation:

MOMENTUM- IT IS THE ABILITY TO INCREASE OR DEVELOP CONSTANT FORCE.

KINETIC ENERGY:- IT IS THE ENERGY THAT A PRTICLE POSSES WHEN IT IS ACTUALLY IN MOTION.

POTENTIAL ENERGY:- IT IS THE ENERGY THAT A PARTICLE POSSES WHEN IT ACTUALLY IS IN RESTING STATE.

IN THIS ACIVITY THE SNOWBOARDER IS IN THE MOTION STATE THEREFORE HE POSSES KINETIC ENERGY AND TO MAINTAIN THAT KINEITC ENERG FOR A PERIOD OF TIME,MOMENTUM PLAYS IT'S ROLE.

4 0
2 years ago
A newly discovered planet has a mean radius of 7380 km. A vehicle on the planet\'s surface is moving in the same direction as th
Butoxors [25]

Answer:

292796435 seconds ≈ 300 million seconds

Explanation:

First of all, the speed of the car is 121km/h = 33.6111 m/s

The radius of the planet is given to be 7380 km = 7380000 m

From the relationship between linear velocity and angular velocity i.e., v=rw, the angular velocity of the car will be w=v/r = 33.6111/7380000 = 0.000000455 rad/s = 4.55 x 10⁻⁶ rad/sec

If the angular velocity of the vehicle about the planet's center is 9.78 times as large as the angular velocity of the planet then we have

w(vehicle) = 9.78 x w(planet)

w(planet) = w(vehicle)/9.78 = 4.55 x 10⁻⁶ / 9.78 = 4.66 x 10⁻⁷ rad/sec

To find the period of the planet's rotation; we use the equation

w(planet) = 2π÷T

Where w(planet) is the angular velocity of the planet and T is the period

From the equation T = 2π÷w = 2×(22/7) ÷  4.66 x 10⁻⁷ = 292796435 seconds

Therefore the period of the planet's motion is 292796435 seconds which is approximately 300, 000, 000 (300 million) seconds

8 0
2 years ago
An ocean liner is cruising at 10 meters/second and is about to approach a stationary ferryboat. A parcel is released from the oc
Afina-wow [57]
The parcel will undergo projectile motion, which means that it will have motion in both the horizontal and vertical direction.

First, we determine how long the parcel will fall using:

s = ut + 1/2 at²

where s will be the height, u is the initial vertical velocity of the parcel (0), t is the time of fall and a is the acceleration due to gravity. 

5.5 = (0)(t) + 1/2 (9.81)(t)²
t = 1.06 seconds

Now, we may use this time to determine the horizontal distance covered by the parcel by using:
distance = velocity * time

The horizontal velocity of the parcel will be equal to the horizontal velocity of the cruise liner.

Distance = 10 * 1.06
Distance = 10.6 meters

The boat should be 10.6 meters away horizontally from the point of release.
4 0
2 years ago
5.16 An insulated container, filled with 10 kg of liquid water at 20 C, is fitted with a stirrer. The stirrer is made to turn by
Anna007 [38]

Answer:

a) W=2.425kJ

b) \Delta E=2.425kJ

c) T_f=20.06^{o}C

d) Q=-2.425kJ

Explanation:

a)

First of all, we need to do a drawing of what the system looks like, this will help us visualize the problem better and take the best possible approach. (see attached picture)

The problem states that this will be an ideal system. This is, there will be no friction loss and all the work done by the object is transferred to the water. Therefore, we need to calculate the work done by the object when falling those 10m. Work done is calculated by using the following formula:

W=Fd

Where:

W=work done [J]

F= force applied [N]

d= distance [m]

In this case since it will be a vertical movement, the force is calculated like this:

F=mg

and the distance will be the height

d=h

so the formula gets the following shape:

W=mgh

so now e can substitute:

W=(25kg)(9.7 m/s^{2})(10m)

which yields:

W=2.425kJ

b) Since all the work is tansferred to the water, then the increase in internal energy will be the same as the work done by the object, so:

\Delta E=2.425kJ

c) In order to find the final temperature of the water after all the energy has been transferred we can make use of the following formula:

\Delta Q=mC_{p}(T_{f}-T_{0})

Where:

Q= heat transferred

m=mass

C_{p}=specific heat

T_{f}= Final temperature.

T_{0}= initial temperature.

So we can solve the forula for the final temperature so we get:

T_{f}=\frac{\Delta Q}{mC_{p}}+T_{0}

So now we can substitute the data we know:

T_{f}=\frac{2 425J}{(10000g)(4.1813\frac{J}{g-C})}+20^{o}C

Which yields:

T_{f}=20.06^{o}C

d)

For part d, we know that the amount of heat to be removed for the water to reach its original temperature is the same amount of energy you inputed with the difference that since the energy is being removed this means that it will be negative.

\Delta Q=-2.425kJ

3 0
2 years ago
A charge of 8.4 × 10–4 C moves at an angle of 35° to a magnetic field that has a field strength of 6.7 × 10–3 T. If the magnetic
larisa86 [58]

Answer:

The charge is moving with the  velocity of 1.1\times10^{4}\ m/s.

Explanation:

Given that,

Charge q =8.4\times10^{-4}\ C

Angle = 35°

Magnetic field strength B=6.7\times10^{-3}\ T

Magnetic force F=3.5\times10^{-2}\ N

We need to calculate the velocity.

The Lorentz force exerted by the magnetic field on a moving charge.

The magnetic force is defined as:

F = qvB\sin\theta

v = \dfrac{F}{qB\sin\theta}

Where,

F =  Magnetic force

q = charge

B = Magnetic field strength

v = velocity

Put the value into the formula

v =\dfrac{3.5\times10^{-2}}{8.4\times10^{-4}\times6.7\times10^{-3}\times\sin35^{\circ}}

v =\dfrac{3.5\times10^{-2}}{8.4\times10^{-4}\times6.7\times10^{-3}\times0.57}

v = 10910.36\ m/s

v = 1.1\times10^{4}\ m/s

Hence, The charge is moving with the  velocity of 1.1\times10^{4}\ m/s.

4 0
2 years ago
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