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hichkok12 [17]
2 years ago
15

____ 27. An amusement park ride has a frequency of 0.05 Hz. What is the ride’s period?

Physics
1 answer:
nirvana33 [79]2 years ago
7 0
T = 1 / f = 1 / 0.05Hz = s
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One object has twice as much mass as another object. The first object also has twice as much a velocity. b gravitational acceler
Gemiola [76]
It would be c. As it can’t accelerate faster thus not having a faster velocity so it’s inertia
6 0
2 years ago
A non-uniform rod 60cm long and weighs 32N is balanced at the 45cm mark. A load of 2N is hung on the zinc rod at the 25cm mark.
Pavlova-9 [17]

Answer:

The second knife-edge must be placed 46.2 cm from the zero mark of the rod.

Explanation:

From the law of equilibrium, ΣF = 0 and ΣM = 0.

Let R be the reaction at the knife edge. Since the weight of the rod and zinc load act downward, and we take downward position as negative

-32 N - 2 N + R = 0

-34 N = -R

R = 34 N

Also, let us assume the knife-edge is x cm from the zero mark. Taking moments about the weight and assuming the knife-edge is right of the weight of the rod. Taking clockwise moments as positive and anti-clockwise moments as negative,

-(45 - 25)2 + (x - 45)R = 0

-(20)2 + (x - 45)34 = 0

-40 = -(x - 45)34  

x - 45 = 40/34

x - 45 = 1.18

x = 45 + 1.18

x = 46.18 cm

x ≅ 46.2 cm

The second knife-edge must be placed 46.2 cm from the zero mark of the rod.

7 0
2 years ago
A particle decelerates uniformly from a speed of 30 cm/s to rest in a time interval of 5.0 s. It then has a uniform acceleration
wel

Answer:

V=20cm/s

Explanation:

The average speed is the distance total divided the time total:

V=X/T

First stage:

T1=5s

v_{f}  =v_{o} - at

But, v_{f}  =0   (decelerates to rest)

then: a =v_{o} /t=0.3/5=0.06m/s^{2}

on the other hand:

x =v_{o}*t - 1/2*at^{2}=0.3*5-1/2*0.06*5^{2}=0.75m

X1=75cm

Second stage:

T2=5s

x =v_{o}*t + 1/2*at^{2}=0+1/2*0.1*5^{2}=1.25m

X2=125cm

Finally:

X=X1+X2=200cm

T=T1+T2=10s

V=X/T=20cm/s

8 0
2 years ago
Assuming the same current is running through two separate coils, why is it easier to thrust a magnet into a wire coil with one l
s2008m [1.1K]
The magnetic field strength in a coil is directly proportional to the number of turns, or loops, in the coil.
Therefore, when there are four loops instead of one, the magnetic field strength has increased four times, making it harder to push the magnet in.
6 0
2 years ago
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A planar loop consisting of seven turns of wire, each of which encloses 200 cm2, is oriented perpendicularly to a magnetic field
PtichkaEL [24]

Answer:

The induced current is 0.084 A

Explanation:

the area given by the exercise is

A = 200 cm^2 = 200x10^-4 m^2

R = 5 Ω

N = 7 turns

The formula of the emf induced according to Faraday's law is equal to:

ε = (-N * dφ)/dt = (N*(b2-b1)*A)/dt

Replacing values:

ε = (7*(38 - 14) * (200x10^-4))/8x10^-3 = 0.42 V

the induced current is equal to:

I = ε /R = 0.42/5 = 0.084 A

3 0
2 years ago
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