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mario62 [17]
1 year ago
14

Ella purchased a game that was on sale for 12% off. The sales tax in her county is 6%. Let y represent the original price of the

game. Write an expression that can be used to determine the final cost of the game.
y − 0.12y
0.06(0.88y)
1.06(0.88y)
y − 0.88y + 0.06y
Mathematics
2 answers:
andreyandreev [35.5K]1 year ago
6 0
Hey there!

Your answer will be 1.06 :P 

Have a wonderful day beautiful!
Amiraneli [1.4K]1 year ago
5 0
<span>Let y represent the original price of the game.
</span><span>Ella purchased a game that was on sale for 12% off, so she purchased at 0.88y
</span><span>sales tax in her county is 6%

</span> final cost = 1.06(0.88y)

<span>answer

</span>1.06(0.88y)
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9-3x2-8x2+4x+5=-11x2+4x+14
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A student claims that the expression “9 times the sum of a number and 13” is translated to the algebraic expression 9n + 13. Is
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A box contains 5 red and 5 blue marbles. Two marbles are withdrawn randomly. If they are the same color, then you win $1.10; if
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Answer:

a) The expected value is \frac{-1}{15}

b) The variance is  \frac{49}{45}

Step-by-step explanation:

We can assume that both marbles are withdrawn at the same time. We will define the probability as follows

#events of interest/total number of events.

We have 10 marbles in total. The number of different ways in which we can withdrawn 2 marbles out of 10 is \binom{10}{2}.

Consider the case in which we choose two of the same color. That is, out of 5, we pick 2. The different ways of choosing 2 out of 5 is \binom{5}{2}. Since we have 2 colors, we can either choose 2 of them blue or 2 of the red, so the total number of ways of choosing is just the double.

Consider the case in which we choose one of each color. Then, out of 5 we pick 1. So, the total number of ways in which we pick 1 of each color is \binom{5}{1}\cdot \binom{5}{1}. So, we define the following probabilities.

Probability of winning: \frac{2\binom{5}{2}}{\binom{10}{2}}= \frac{4}{9}

Probability of losing \frac{(\binom{5}{1})^2}{\binom{10}{2}}\frac{5}{9}

Let X be the expected value of the amount you can win. Then,

E(X) = 1.10*probability of winning - 1 probability of losing =1.10\cdot  \frac{4}{9}-\frac{5}{9}=\frac{-1}{15}

Consider the expected value of the square of the amount you can win, Then

E(X^2) = (1.10^2)*probability of winning + probability of losing =1.10^2\cdot  \frac{4}{9}+\frac{5}{9}=\frac{82}{75}

We will use the following formula

Var(X) = E(X^2)-E(X)^2

Thus

Var(X) = \frac{82}{75}-(\frac{-1}{15})^2 = \frac{49}{45}

7 0
2 years ago
It takes 32 hours for a motorboat moving downriver to get from pier A to pier B. The return journey takes 48 hours. How long doe
lina2011 [118]

Answer:

Time taken by the un powered raft to cover this distance is T = 192.12 hr

Step-by-step explanation:

Let speed of boat = u \frac{km}{hr}

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32 = \frac{100}{u +v}

u + v = \frac{100}{32}

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By solving equation (1) & (2)

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Now the time taken by the un powered raft to cover this distance

T = \frac{100}{v}

Because un powered raft travel with the speed of the current.

T = \frac{100}{0.5205}

T = 192.12 hr

Therefore the  time taken by the un powered raft to cover this distance is

T = 192.12 hr

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